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B-2A Operational Procedures Q&A (long!)

AN/AWW-14(V)

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Fuel

Main tanks contain
Transfer bay- sends fuel to pump bay
Pump bay- feeds fuel to engines and APU, senses fuel levels, neg g box
Neg g box- fuel for 3 sec neg g flt

Surge tanks hold #
Hold 2600 #

How many transfer and boost pumps in each main tank
2 transfer pumps and 2 boost pumps.
Transfer pumps: one operates at all times when AC POWER is applied. Send fuel from transfer bay to pump bay.
Boost pumps: provide fuel to engines from negative g box. One boost pump can feed 2 engines. Both operate continuously in flt

Override pumps
2 in each INBD, OUTBD, AFT Tank.
One pump overrides two boost pumps

Recovery fuel
18000

Min fuel
15000

Emergency fuel
10000

What tanks can gravity feed engines
Only main tanks can gravity feed if main tank boost pumps fail

How is fuel transfered
INBD, OUTBD, AFT transfer via override pumps through the interconnect using 2 crossover shutoff valves

Scavenge
Contaminates go to lowest point for removal. Then sent to engines and burned.

Fuel measurement
Primary and secondary computers.
60 quantity sensors. 10 temp sensors.

Heat exchangers how does it work
Hot fuel from HX is returned to tank determined by FMMS
Outboard cant feed inboard
Inbord cant feed outboard

Thermal mixing keeps fuel to the engine below what temp
180 F

Air refueling
Uses transfer manifold
3600 to 5200 ppm
Aitomatic disconnect when px exceeds 75 psi

Fuel dumping
No dumping if WOW
override and boost pumps operate as dump pumps

Each main fuel tank is subdivided into a transfer bay and the
Pump bay

If you want to move the CG aft where should you move the fuel
Move fuel to the outboard tanks

How do you switch to alternate pumps
If in MANUAL mode: you switch with alternate pumps switch on the ground power panel. If in NORM mode: it switches by itself

When is gravity feed necessary
Main tank fuel gravity feed if a boost pump or override pump is not providing fuel pressure. Engine is gravity fed during eng start before generators come online

How are the APUs fed
Gravity fed from the corresponding pump bay

Surge tank numbers
Holds 2,600 lbs
Appears on MDU: greater than 200 lbs
Vents overboard if accumulates more than 1200 lbs

Scavenge pumps send fuel where
Transfer to the inboard tanks

FMMS 3 works only in
Manual mode

Top 3 order of priority for FMMS operation
Engine fuel feed
Fuel CG control
Maintenance of full main tanks

AV 1-5 have how much unusable fuel
3000 pounds.

Normal recovery fuel
18,000 lbs

Minimum fuel
15,000 lbs

Emergency fuel
10,000 lbs

Tank fuel quantity error
Normal green. 2-10 percent blue. More than 10 yellow. If difference in fuel between 1,2 and fmms3

When A/R how are the tanks filled
Each tank is opened and filled simultaneously. CG is not computed at this time.

Unusable fuel us based on what
Pitch attitude.

Normal N. Command C. Manual M
Normal: auto controls the system
Command: command CG auto still controls.
Manual: manually control the system.

CG limit bars are red and appear when the aircraft CG is within?
1% MAC of a CG limit.

How many override pumps to override main tank pumps
1 override pump can override main tank pumps. Main tank has 2 main boost pumps that run continuously.

Why do we call it an override system
When automatically turner on or manually by the crew. Te aux tank pumps override the main tank pumps and allow the engines to feed from the selected tank due to the 50 psi higher pressure than the 35 psi main tank pumps. When fuel is transferred from an aux tank the aux tank is not used to feed the engines.

How does gravity feed get to the engines
Bypasses the heat exchanger

When do the mains scavenge
Always scavenge in flight

FMMS 3 accuracy
FMMS 3 gives fuel quantity readings on fuel panel but because no compensators. FMMS3 allows for manual control

FMMS control where to send fuel in what mode
Normal. FCS computes and commands CG

CG computation
CG is computed by FCS but controlled by AUTO and MAN. In MAN fuel is managed with the fuel panel. In auto fmms manages fuel.

Manually dump fuel where do you position outboard inboard aft selections
12 o'clock

When do you et a yellow P/T. Fuel caution association
P- boost pump or override pump has failed
T- transfer pump has failed
Fuel caution when one or two boost pumps fail in main tank.
Fuel caution when 2 transfer pumps have failed
Fuel caution when both override pumps have failed in aft, inboard, or outboard tank.

If nain tank boost oumps fail how to feed the engine
Fed by gravity feed from only main tanks.

What is the difference between AR DOOR and FUEL DOOR
FUEL DOOR- indicates a ground panel door or a ground scavenge panel door is open. * if airborne, leave gear extended to prevent damage

AR DOOR
Air refueling receptacle is not closed when commanded close. Or air refueling receptacle is not closed when in pen mode

What are the different indications for a pump failure
T- transfer pump in main tank is inop
P- override or boost pump is inop

What component determines CG control
FCS

Which FMMS computer can be used in auto
FMMS1 or 2

What components are capable of using fuel from gravity feeding
APU, and engines

What does the interconnect switch do
Allows fuel from each aux tank to gravity feed into the main tank transfer bay

What do the 2 surge tanks do
Collect fuel from the tank vent system
Holds 2600. After 200 appears SRG on MDU
Scavenge pumps activate and fuel transfers from surge tanks to inboard tanks
Fuel could vent overboard after landing if either surge tank has greater than 1200 lbs fuel in it

What PSI do aux override pumps use
50 psi main boost pumps use 35

Where does excess fuel go after it passes through heat exchangers in auto mode
Wherever the FMMS commands it for temperature control

Who controls the tank valves in AR manual mode
Pilots

What does the alternate fuel pump button do
Enables the other override pump in each aux tank and selects the other transfer pumps in each main tank during man fuel operations
Switch is located on the GPP

How do you fill the main tanks from the MFCP
Rotate the main tank knob yo the 6 o'clock position. Be in manual ops

What happens when you enter a desired fuel quantity into the DEP
If in AUTO mode, it closes all fill valves once the desired fuel quantity is reached causing a pressure disconnect. Must be in AUTO

What pumps failures will cause a caution light for a single pump failure
Main tank boost pumps

When does FMMS not try to maintain precise control of CG
When AR and dumping fuel

How can you tell if you have a tank quantity error
FUEL advisory on stat display: fuel quantity is in error by greater than 2 percent in any fuel tank
Color of tank quantity on MDU
Green is normal
Blue is 2-10 percent
Yellow is greater than 10
Blank (no display) data is invalid
Caused by FMMS 1 and 2 disagreeing

Apu is gravity fed how
From pump bay of main tank at 400 pph

FMMS 1 2
1 is primary 2 is alternate. 2 backs up 1 one doesn't back up 2

FMMS give what information
Quantity, temperature, total fuel, inlet fuel temperature, tank temperature

How to disconnect from AR
Stick first detent disconnects
Second detent resets the AR system

Main tank fill position
6 o'clock

Main tank transfer position
12 o'clock

How do you get to the refuel page
Gives total fuel requesting

Fuel door caution
Ground refuel door or scavenge panel door is open

MFCP advisory
A failure had occurred in the fuel panel or FMMS computer 3 has failed.

TCV 1,2,3,4
A fuel temperature control valve has failed. If failed shouldn't need to do anything but may need to reset circuit breaker

If MCV fails MCV 1,2,3,4
means it has closed and only getting cold air to the engine.
Mixing control valve has failed. Retard throttle to idle monitor display for increased engine inlet temperature. Pull fuel temp circuit breaker

During manual ground or air refueling do not simultaneously deselect more than how many fill valve buttons to close level control valves due to excess surge px causing disconnect or damage to transfer system
2

FMS

What is the bus controller for the primary avionics buses A,B,C
FMCP

IPU contains what
FMCP, DDUS

When does load shedding occur
Initiated by FMCP. When you lose 2 generators and the load on the third is 110% or greater. Or if you lose 3 generators.

How do you power on and off equipment
From the pwr format

How do you turn on tier one electrics
Use either one of two APS to apply power to IPU, DEP, DDU, FMCP, AVIP, FCC

Master power off
Takes 2 min. 1 for mx, 1 to pwr off equipment

How long for emer pwr off
30 seconds

What controls buses F and G
AVIP

What is on the F bus
SMRT, PSLU

What is on the G bus
CTC

Top 5 systems on the STAT display
FUEL, FCH, ELEC, ECS, ENG

How do you silence audible WCAs
Press master warning light. Press STAT button

How do you acknowledge WCAs
STAT button

How do you reprioritize WCAs
STAT button

Rescinded buttons are what color
Cyan. Stat removes it from the list

What does PURG do
Empties WCA and valid ones return

What is under CDS
DPU and MDUs and DEPs

DEP arrows
In- input data. Out-another format. Up- rotary switch. Up/down- there are more pages

CIDS on in
50 sec

DEP on in
10 sec

MDU on in
30 sec

How do you get the curser curser on CIDS
Click inboard twice to het there. It kicks other person off

What are the 4 times the CIDS display reverts to SFID
1. Dual FMCP failure
2. Both APS are turned off
3. 2 or more DPUs fail
4. Load shedding invoked by FMCPs

What can i set from the FDCP
Course select, baro px, command altitude, radar alt, command airspeed, heading

What are the 4 master modes
PEN, escape, landing/approach, normal

What master mode does the jet start in
Normal

How many attempts does the bus controller make to recover a component
14 attempts to recover a DPU. 3 recovery attempts for other equipment on the avionics and avionics interface buses

WCAs are displayed from
SMRT, F bus, AVIP, out of limits goes to DPU then master warn master caution displayed on MDU.

When is please standby on 2 MDUs
DPU interrupted

Please standby is on all MDUs if
Both FMCPs fail

If DPU cant receive data how recieve master warns
Master warning, master caution, and firelights are hardwired to aircraft analog sensors to alert crewmembers when DPU and FMCPs fail.

When do you get a DPU advisory
When 2 DPUs have failed. 1 is nothing. 3 is a warning

AVIN OTEMP
lost one processor and the remaining has overtrmped. Try to recycle from FMS page on DEP

MDU overtemp caution
MDU cooling air exhaust temperature rises above 165. Touch to determine then decrease display intensity. Remove power from the DEP PWR format

PSLU 1
Primary PSLU has failed: no monitor of deployable antenna, landing gear truck, landing gear position, and aux air doors

PSLU 2
Redundancy is lost. Initiate IBIT of affected PSLU

PSLU 1 and 2
Both PSLU have failed. Door position and weight on wheels not available

TARGA/PCMCIA card has how many gigs
220 MB

N1
Rotary fan speed

N2
Compressor speed

SSD has how many gigs
129 GB

Propulsion

How are the engines operated
Two compressor sections that are mechanically independent but aerodynamically coupled.

boundary layer diverter does what
1. Helps cool AMAD- hydraulic pumps and generators
2. Helps cool ECS precooler and intercooler
3. Coops the exhaust aft wing deck

What is the DEC what does it conrtrol
Digital Electronic Control
Controls: 1. engine fuel scheduling functions
2. Activation of torque motors used to set engine functions 3. Excitation of engine sensors 4. Power to operate fuel driven mechanisms for IGV

What is the primary controller
DEC

If the DEC fails what happens
System control automatically shifts to the MFC as the secondary. The label SEC MODE replaces the engine number on the engine display.

What are the reasons the DEC would shut down and pass control
The DEC passes control to the MFC. SEC MODE. if there is a loss of speed signal, a core overspeed, a less than idle condition, an electrical failure

How much is engine thrust reduced in SEC MODE
The inlet guide vanes are closed to a min airflow position, reducing thrust by as much as 60 percent.

Where does the APU vent
APU is mounted vertically to vent exhaust air out the top of the wing through electrically controlled hydraulically actuated exhaust doors

APU has a self start capability using stored air provided by
A rechargeable, high pressure pressurized air start system (PASS). TDC recharge px for the pass bottle. Pressurized to 1000 +/- 50.

What is the AMAD when can it be recoupled
Airframe mounted accessory drive. If decoupled, it can only be recoupled on the ground by Maintence.

Fire detection occurs when
If the loop senses temperatures exceeding 575F. Both elements if the sensing loop must register to provide a fire warning or tailpipe caution.

Do not open the aux air doors above
0.4 mach, severe structural damage will occur

What is the preferred starting source
APU. 1 is required 2 is desired. The one needs no malf.

APU doors are limited to what airspeed
250 KCAS

Auto engine start is unavailable on ground air to do auto engine start must use what source
APU

EGT readings come from thermocouple until what temperature? Switches over from therocouple to?
665C switches to pytometer

You could see a just in temperature on TBT between what temperature due to switch from thermocouple to pyrometer
665-685C

What is max motoring
Motoring after 10 seconds of n2 at or above 23 percent

Aux air doors
Max speed 0.4.

How is the bleed air operated
Spring loaded closed can manually operate

How is the anti ice operated
Is spring loaded open. Can manually operate

What is AD temp
AMAD oil is overheating. Shut down engine or decouple AMAD

What are the procedures for TAILPIPE 1,2,3,4
Tailpipe bay overheated
On ground- retard throttle if high temp persists- APU/engine stop. Chocks installed
In flight- retard throttles to idle. If high temp persists, shut down engine, motor engine

Engine oil temp pressure difference
SFID less than or equal to 15
MDU less than or equal to 10

APU doors open limit speed to
250 KCAS

Bleed air panel arrangement
5 down 2 up. 5 down are 4 bleeds and 1 crossover valve. 2 up are isolation valves

How long must it take to charge the PASS bottle?
30 minutes to recharge from 0 psi.

How is bleed air operated
Takes 5th and 9th stage bleed air. Electrically opened and spring loaded close

How is anti ice operated
Valve is electrically closed. Fails to open due to mechanical spring. Goes to the nose cone, inlet guide vanes, and front frame struts

Auto engine start is unavailable on ground air must use what source
APU

Caution after engine start if on ground for an extended time
At least once every 2 hours run engine at or above 85%n2 for 60 sec to prevent damage ti equipment. Oil might not scavenge when engine is at idle fir an extended time.

Do not exceed what for 5 min yo max eng life
85 percent n2

Alert start panel does what
Starts both APUs. Fire detection and extinguishing is automatic

Min time between starting a stopped engine
2 minutes after 0% N2

Throttle control system operates how
Connects to TPS (throttle position sensor) connects to TCU (thrust control unit) sends AC, DC signal to TCA (thrust control actuator)

ESCU malfunctions what is depected
AES light.

What does it mean if you get an AES light
ESCU cant decouple/recouple

AI/...
No icing detected

AI/Ice
Ice is detected

APU Door Advisory
APU door is open.

APU Door caution
Door is open at rotate. Stay under 250 KCAS

Aux door sequence
Closes at 0.3
Opens at 0.28
Overspeed at 0.4

TBT limitations
Max either: 843 10 sec, 890 instantaneous. 935 operational limitation.

Pass stands for
Pressurized air start system

Ice detection fail do what
Turn anti ice on. Avoid icing conditions

When can i auto start
1. I have at least one APU with no malf
2. Tailwind is less than 10 knots
3. Engines have been shut down longer than 90 minutes

When can i selective start
1. Tailwind is less than or equal to 20 knots
2. I have ground external air
3. I must if AES or AMAD green lights illuminated
4. I need to restart within 90 minutes.

Boundary layer has 3 channels
Channel 1. Eng bay x, channel 2 ECS, channel 3 engine bay y

Electrics

How many generators
4

What do the generators power
Generators power an AC bus

How are the generators connected to the AC bus
Connected by the GLC

What does the GCU do
Regulates voltage and frequencies. GCU controls the GLC and BTC.

What does the BTC-5 do
AC Comtactor. Controlled by the BCU. Permits the split parallel design feature.

What speed does the generator come online
60% N2

Whats in the electrical control panel
Sits to the pilots left front. Has:
Ext pwr: avail- meaning good power is available. On meaning switch activation
Flt contr batt: connects batteries to flight control buses
Util batt:connects main start bus to battery buses 2 and 3
DC bus tie relay switch: connects left and right dc sides: 1 to 3 and 2 to 4
Gen switch used to reset the generators and apply power to them

If generators do not come on line what do i do
Reset the generators

How many generators for mission
2

How many generators for safe recovery
1

DC bus tie is operated how
Done manually to connect the 2 DC sides: 1 to 3 and 2 to 4

TR failure on MDU electrics page. If boxed yellow TR
Transformer has failed, the failure in TR link to flight controls

If both TR and number are displayed
The TR has failed

Change in amperage number turns yellow on MDU electrics page.
Amperage is zero to that DC Bus supply

The limit in TR is how many amps
100 amps. TR limit

What are normal ops
Left and right side are split but they run parallel to each other.

What are current limiters
Act as fuses to protect against overload

If you close the bus tie relay what are you doing
Providing DC interconnection between left and right sides of aircraft. 1-3,2-4. Current limiters act as fuses on these lines.

Utility battery switch does what
Connects the main bus to batteries 2,3 to provide for:
1. Main start bus
2. APU start bus for non alert APU starts
3. Crew entry door, ladder, and entry lights
4. FWALDS and SFID

Power in descending order to flight control buses
TRs, PMG, then batteries. Batteries can support the flight control bus for at least 3 min.

Each flight control bus is powered by
2 TRs

Light cautions when in PEN mode
AR LIGHT= AR light control us out if off
LIGHT POD= wingtip nav position/anti collision lights are not fully retracted

On ground power panel how do i test bateries
Under BATT COND: When test button is pressed and held. GOOD illuminates if the batteries are st least 60% charged and a good connection exist.

ELEC caution
Means the generator has failed

ELEC advisory
TR output is less than 22 vults
Current limiter has failed
BTC 1,2,3,4 has opened

When do the emergency lights illuminate
Provide crew compartment lighting after a sudden deceleration or loss of DC power

What do the emergency lights illuminate
Light the hatch jettison handles snd the pressure door

When does load shedding occur from the FMCP
FMCP load sheds airborne only. Sheds when 3 generators have failed or when 2 generators have failed and the load on the 3rd is greater than or equal to 110

FMCP recovers equipment how
Automatically recovers shes equipment when generators are reset

BCU load shedding is initiated when
3 generators fail and remaining generator is overloaded for more than 5 seconds. Sheds by opening BTC-5; if conditions persist BTC is opened and generator protection is removed.

DC load shedding is how
Must be manually accomplished by the crew. Only required if 3 TR fail. Manually turn off equipment until TR load is less than 100 amps

What are GCU failure indications
Indicated only by .03 on gen.
AC bus tie offline.
BTC in parallel opens

BATT TEMP 1,2,3,4
Specified battery has overheated while charging.

Check electrical display and pull appropriate battery charger CB within 5 minutes.

SFID what does AC mean
No AC on the AC bus. None of the generators came online

Wingtip lights are what kind of lights
Retractable lights. LIGHT POD

What is a generator contactor
Gen to AC BUS

DC bus tie relay
Done manually

What is the bus tie contractor
Permits split parallel design feature controlled by BCU. Connects left to right or isolates the bus

What is a current limiter
It is a fuse. Provides circuit protection.

Btc 5 definition
Connects left and right AC systems

Battery can power FCS for how long
3 minutes

BCU is
The brains. Sole control of BTC 5. External power contactor. Generator protection disabler

Retractable lights
Consists of 2 position lights and an anti collision strobe light. Lights extend above snd below the surface of the wingtip

TR do what
Convert AC to DC

AC caution kight
Full loss of AC power/blank MDUs/only displayed on CID

Generator
AC generator/AMAD IDG constant speed. Come on at 62.

Flight control bus versus utility bus
Flight- connects bus 1,2,3,4 to their respective FCS buses (disconnects bat 2 from main start bus)

Utility- connects bat bus 2 and 3 to main start bus. Utility battery system: bus 3 provides backup power to main start bus in flight. Batteries 2,3 provide 4 things.

When are batteries powered
Battery buses are always powered

What must be up for the FWALDS test
CIDS

GCU stands for
General control unit. One per generator, regulates voltage and frequency

GLC definition
Generator line contactor. Connects generator to AC bus controlled by GCU

BTC definition
Bus tie connector. Permits split parallel design feature controlled by BCU

BCU definition
Bus control unit. Connects to BTC-5 connects left and right AC buses if a generator fails

Elec gen 4 fails
BTC 3 opens
BTC5 closes
GLC 4 open

Emergency light positions
ARM, DISARM, TEST

ECS

Bleed air system definition
Provides hot pressurized air to the ECS from 5th and 9th stage bleed air (9th stage added when 5th is too low below 85%)

Backup oxygen system definition
Provides 100% oxygen to the crew if necessary (if cabin alt exceeds 27,000 feet)

Equipment cooling system (ECS) definition
Contains 3 different heT transport sources to provide cooling:
Liquid cooling
Forced air
Emergency air (from cabin)

Cabin conditioning system (CCS) definition
Provides dry, filtered, temperature controlled air for crew compartment

Oxygen generation snd distribution system (OGADS) definition
Converts conditioned bleed air into oxygen enriched breathing quality air

Windshield defog system definition
Provides warm air to defog windshields. Controlled by CAS 1
Min: 10% ambient cabin temp
Med: 67% ambient cabin temp
Max: 85% 160F

DMS cooling system definition
Provides EGW to cool the DMS processors

Voice warning are only for what
Master warning (red light)

Will cautions give a voice warning
No i.e. ECS Caution

Warm air start checklist with GSE to power ECS
Ground power panel:
cabin conditioning switch-up
Cabin flow switch-as required (up unless weapons onboard)
Equipment cooling switch-up
Accessory drive panel:
ECS mode switch-on

How do you describe the windshield defog system
The temperature is automatically maintained at 160F when MAX DEFOG is selevted

When do the CAS controllers swap
1. On engine start
2. 15 seconds after WOW is removed
3. 30 sec after engine shutdown
(If 1 controller fails, the ECS is no longer redundant)h

Cabin px schedule
0-8000: ambient
8000-45,000: 8000 maintained
Above 45000: 8.78 PSI +/-2 PSI

Color difference on MDU display for CAS controller
White— FAILED/not receiving power
Yellow— degraded

What is the difference between degraded vrs. Failed
Degraded- something is malfunctioning in the system but overall system works (valve inop)
Fail- nothing on the system works (CAS 1 FAIL)

How many fans are on each avionics rack
2 fans, only one operates at a time. Alternate st each engine start.

What are the different racks
LT FWD
RT FWD
WNG BX
AFT EQUIP BAY
forced air system is not for pressurization

Describe the left and right EGW systems
1. Cools DMS
2. Cools radar (2 liquid sub systems to cool radar:EGW and silicate ester dielectric fluid
3. Cools forced air (not to be confused with secondary air)
4. Removes heat from ECS system

What is the normal position for bleed air valves on the bleed air control panel
5 down 2 up
5 down: 4 engine bleeds and ine crossover valve
2 up: left and right isolation valves

What does a cabin pack do
There are 2 cabin packs (1 for cabin pressure and 1 for weapons cooling)
1. Regulate canin temp from 45-97F
2. Cabin pressurization schedule
3. Cools weapons bay avionics

MDU: BL LEAK 1,2,3,4 or SFID: ECS BL L,R
Warning
Bleed air leak between the secondary pressure shutoff valve. Idle, close eng bleed valves, x-over

MDU: BL LEAK L,R or SFID: ECS BL L,R
Warning
Bleed air leak downstream of secondary shutoff valve.

MDU: CAB PRESS
Warning
Canin altitude above 11,000 feet

MDU: OXY REQ
Warning
1. Cabin pressure above 11,000 and the breathing regulator cabin air valve open.
2. Cabin pressure above 29,000 and backup oxygen not on.

MDU: AV OTEMP
Caution
Avionics cooling air is overheating (rack temp greater than 145F)

MDU: BL OTEMP L,R
Caution
Bleed air over temperature (335F)

MDU: BU OXY LOW
Caution
Backup oxygen is less than 400 psi

MDU: CAB PRESS
Caution cabin pressure sensors 1 and 2 have failed and the aft ravk pressure sensor failed/ invalid

MDU: DFOG OTEMP
Caution
Defog air temperature.
—defog control to min. If defog is required increase crew compartment airflow
Defog to max once clear, then min

MDU: ECS


SFID: ECS
Neither conditioned air system controller (CASC) is powered on the ground

MDU: ECS PRES 1,2,3,4
Bleed air overpressure between the engine bleed air and secondary pressure shutoff valves

MDU: MDU OVERTEMP
Overtemperature of MDU cooling air exhaust

MDU: OXY FAIL
OGADS: Oxygen Generation and Distribution System has failed

MDU: W/S OVERTEMP SFID: ECS
Over-temperature of anti ice and rain removal our above 308 for 11 sec.

MDU: BU OXY ON
Backup oxygen system is on

MDU: CAB AIR ON
An oxygen breathing regulator cabin air valve is open.

How does secondary air flow
500 degrees out of the eng. then y's to precooler or intercooler temp reduced to 250 degrees, if above 335 bleed air over-temp.

How do you get bleed air from one side to the other
Crossover valve

What provides air for crew compartment and racks
Cabin conditioning system

What happens when the alert and radiation switch is in arm
Filters out contaminants and arms the slap switch

How does air flow by the APU's
1 APU provides bleed air to the cabin pack. The other APU provides air to the equipment pack. Only one pack can operate per side.

Equipment cooling system is cooled how
Through EGW and heat exchangers. TRs are only thing liquid cooled

How many sub systems in equipment cooling sys
Radar has 2 sub systems, DMS one subsystem. DMS is single point if failure.

How to get air from APU to the pack
Isolation valves must be open. Apu maintenance mode 95%.

Bleed air normal configuration
5 down latched. 2 up latched

What are the undercool lights? How long do i have once undercool is identified
RT FWD, WNG BOX, MDU, AFT- aft equipment bay. 60 seconds or shutdown due to protect equipment

Equipment pack override
Turns off both equipment packs and begins emergency cooling.

Dump versus vent
Dump: 3 outflow valves open and stops airflow. Vent: lets air come in from cabin packs.

W/S display
When W/S is displayed anti ice or rain removal. If <50 18 psi. If >50 6psi. Rain removal is 6psi

Cabin temp position
9 oclock auto position

Cabin flow normal position
12 o'clock

Cabin cond switch
Allows CAS controllers to control canin packs for ground operation

Equipment cooling switch
Allows the CAS controllers to control equipment cooling for ground operation

Oxygen required comes on when
At 29,000 cabin alt without backup oxygen. Or if cabin pressure is above 11,000 and cabin air valve is open

When can you do a CAS bit
Only on the ground. Takes 7 min.

What does ECS reset do?
Resets the controllers

2psi
Need greater than 2 psi through the oxygen system or you are breathing cabin air. If less than 2 cabin air valve is open you get CAB AIR ON

When does bu oxygen turn yellow
Below 390 psi

BALDS
Bleed air leak detection system: prevents leak from 1,2,3,4 from getting out of hand.

When greater than 11000 PA what WCA will you get
Cabin alt, oxygen required, cabin press


Hydraulics

What is the purpose of the case drain
Hot excess fluid goes through the case drain then sends it to the heat exchanger then the reservoir to be reused

Each surface has how many actuators
2. Inboard elevons have 3.

Each actuator has how many systems
2 systems flowing through it.

If i lose 3 hydraulic systems can i still fly the plane why
Yes. The arrangement of primary and alternate hydraulic systems for each actuator and at least 2 actuators for each surface, means all flight control surfaces can be powered by any of the 4 hydraulic systems

How does the main gear release.
It is released by the actuator then falls by gravity

Each surface can receive power from 4 systems except?
GLAS. One actuator receives primary power from system 3 and alternate from system 4. The other actuator receives primary power from system 4 and alternate from 3.

What is the secondary flight control surface
GLAS. Not necessary for flight.

GLAS is supplied by what two systems what does it look like if it is failed
Supplied by system 3,4. If failed turns yellow. Never turns red.

PSLU does what
Proximity Switch Logic Unit. Monitors and controls: landing gear, wheel brakes, anti-skid, engine aux inlet doors, inflight refueling receptacle/latch in conjunction with the FCC.

Each PSLU provides
WOW, control to retract and extend the landing gear. Indications fir landing gear status display. Actuator position indications. Switching valve logic.

Sensor sends signal that doors are up closed


What do check valves do
Spring activates so fluid cannot go back that way. Closes the valve

What are the accumulators
Stores fluid under pressure then transformas 1800 psi to the 4000 psi nominal pressure

How many accumulators are there
10

Where are the accumulators
2 entry door, 1 brake, 2 APU, 4 reservoir (1,2,3,4), 1 main landing gear.

How many brake applications for the brake accumulator
10

Anti skid normal
Front to back

Antiskid alternate
Laterally paired forward to aft

What is your indication that the switching valve is bypass
When in bypass each component is isolated from its hydraulic system source and all other components powered by that system. You will not know but can look at the fluid level

How many switching valves are there
6

What does the emergency gear configuration look like
You will get an unsafe indication because nose gear wheelwell door remains open.

What is the concern with the gear if i lose systems 1 and 4
You lose normal braking. And landing gear norm extension

Main gear retraction 60degree sensor
A sensor checks the truck position. If the truck has not stowed within 60 degrees of gear retraction. The gear sequence is reversed and the affected gear free falls to the extended position.

If i lose system 1,2 i lose left aux air doors. 3,4 right aux air doors


How many isolation valves
3

When can NWS be activated
Low gain: max deflection is 27 degrees l,r. 9 degrees between 50-80
High gain: 65 degrees. Unless 265000 then 50 degrees. High gain should not be used above 10 knots

1 accumulator is required to extend the landing gear. Which system is required for nose gear
1 is primary for main, 4 is alternate, backup is the emergency accumulator. System 3 is the sole source of pressure for emergency extension of the NLG

How long do you have to hold the reset button for landing gear to reset
5 seconds

Do not reset the landing gear emergency lowering switch until at least how many seconds why
90 seconds after placing switch down. Allows the gear to extend and locks the door in full open position.

What does the yellow T mean
Truck level indicator means the truck does not natch the position commanded by the gear handle.

What does the yellow X mean
Indicates the gear is in transit

Yellow segmented double circle means
Unsafe gear and flashes when gear handle flashes

What do pumps provide
Volume not pressure

When does the fluid level change from blue to yellow
1,2,4 at 15 percent. 3 at 25 percent.

How many hydraulic failures populate s caution light
1

How many hydraulic failures populate a warning horn
3

At what pressure does the indication change from green to yellow
3000

When does the landing gear tone activate
Below 10000
Below 200
Below 90% N2 on all 4 engines for greater than 3 seconds
Landing gr up

What N2 percentage do the hydraulic pumps come online
20%

Hydraulic limits px
3000-5700 normal
4000 optimal

Hydraulic temp limits
-65-250 normal
100-150 optimal
Caution range begins at 251

Hydraulic Quantity range
1,2,4: 15% switches to alternate and isolates the low system
3: 25%

What is the difference between alternate and backup
Alternate can completely power the entire system. Back-up an accumulator for a given component

How many switching valves are there
6

Which system is dedicated to the FCS
System 2

Which side of the aircraft are pumps A and B associated with
A left side
B right side
Crossover manifold opens si one pump can power the entire system

What is on the landing light and brake panel
Landing and taxi light, parking brake, brake accumulator px, anti skid switch

The landing gear panel contains
Landing gr, down lock override, gear indicators, gear test button, horn silence.

How many degrees are you limited to if over 265,000 pounds
50

MDU: HYD SFID: HYD
Warning. Low hydraulic pressure in THREE hydraulic systems < 3000 psi

MDU: SURFACE SFID: SURFACE
Warning. Flight control surface locked out due ti hydraulic failure, actuator in bypass, or inoperative actuator

ART TEMP
Advisory. Actuator remote terminal is approaching overtemp

NWS OFF
Advisory shifts off

PARK BRAKE
Parking brake and antiskid switch on

MDU: ANTISKID
Caution. Gear down and antiskid switch off or antiskid failure

MDU: HYD 1,2,3,4
Caution. Hydro quantity low, pressure punp low, one pump failed, temp high. (15% or 25 on 3, less than 3000 psi, 251 degrees or greater)

MDU: MLG ACCUM
Caution. Main landing gear accumulator pressure is low

MDU: NWS FAIL
Caution. Nose wheel steering fault detected

Are are the hydraulic lines cooled
They are routed through the fuel tanks

MDU: GEAR DN AS
Caution. Airspeed faster than 250 and gear not up and locked

MDU: AFT DOOR
Caution Aft equipment bay door is open or lockout switch is in disable

MDU: ENTRY DOOR
Caution Entry door us not locked.
 

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Flight instruments


What does the white dotted box around an airspeed, altitude, or navigation source mean
Means armed and that the autopilot will fly to that parameter

What does a yellow dashed box around altitude, airspeed, mach and nav source mean
That specific mode is engaged. You must still hand fly

What does orange solid box around a nav source mean
It is coupled to the autopilot and actively flying.

The airspeed trend line predicts what airspeed will be in how many seconds
10 seconds later

How many degrees of HIS display in decentered mode
70

CDI displacement
1 dot: 5 degrees in TACAN, 3/4 or 1 1/4 in localizer ir ils depending on width of localizer.

Radar altimeter displays 5000 AGL
Between 5 and 20k: one is norm one is off
Above 20k: one is stby one is off
If only one RALT is broken you get an AVIN message, no WCA. if two are broken you get a caution. (2 RALT)

Rotate
125 (+3 knots for every 10,000 lbs above 250,000) (add .5 gust increment). Basic+increased weight+.5 gust increment

Vmca (1 eng out)
115

Vmca (2 eng out same side)
142

Vapproach
140 (+3 knots for every 10,000 lbs above 215,000lbs) (Add 10 knots for 2 eng out) {or if worse} if crosswind is greater than 25 add 3 knots for each knot above 25.

Vtouchdown
130 (+3 knots for every 10,000 lbs above 215,000)

Vmcg
96 ground min control speed

Must be less than what weight for touch and go
270

On FDCP you can input
Airspeed
Altitude
Baro
Radar alt
(Also course and heading select)

How do you select a steering mode
On the bezel buttons on the MDU HSD VSD

What does the yellow airplane symbol in the VSD mean
Shows the position of longitude and lateral axis of jet

Orange flight path marker means
It is the continuous inertial derived display of jets vertical path. Not pitch angle

One trigger click
Pitch interrupt on/off

One picky button
Roll interrupt

Full trigger squeeze
Autopilot disconnect. You do not get any WCAs

What happens during an uncommanded autopilot disconnect
If you deflect stick .7 to 2.5 inches in a direction, it will decouple the axis in which .7 inches is exceeded (pitch or roll). You can recouple by using the 1st detent trigger or pinky button as appropriate.

What happens when you deflect the stick 2.5 inches in any direction.
You get a master warning (AP DISC), a voice alert, when you go above 2.5 inches of stick deflection in any direction. Autopilot also completely disconnects when you go above 2.5.

What is on the bottom right of the HSD when no steering mode is selected
Bearing and distance to the next nav point on the blue line

Synthetic tacan is limited to points within what distance; course guidance is limited to what distance?
11,000 but course guidance is limited to 200 miles

Is synthetic ils considered a precision approach
Yes

Takeoff condition line 8 messages are
NO SENSED: -sense data not available
NO RUNWAY: runway data not available
SHORT RWY!: runway is too short for takeoff
CRIT FLD: CFL exceeds runway length
OBST HGT: obstacle cannot be cleared

Enroute condition line 8 messages are
NO SENSED: sensed data not available
ALTNOTRCHD: gross weight too high to reach altitude
INVLD AD: invalid action point
NO NSS DAT: current nav data not available

In Landing condition line 8 messages are
NO SENSED: At least one item of sensed data is not available
NO RUNWAY: valid runway data not available
SHORT RWY: runway too short for landing
CG LIMIT: center of gravity exceeds landing gear down CG envelope
INVLD AD: invalid action point number entered

What is the difference between best and max endurance
Best endurance is constant altitude
Max endurance is if you max your altitude

AP DISC
Warning: Uncommanded pitch or roll interrupt
Uncommanded autopilot disconnect
MDU message automatically rescinds in 3 seconds
Secondary flight instrument display rescinds in 7 seconds

CG LIMIT
Warning: CG is out if CG envelope and in warning zone

FLIGHT CONTROL
Warning: Warning level failure exists in the flight control system

MACH LIMIT. Does not show up on SFID
Warning: Airspeed is more than 0.02 mach faster than mach limit.
Airspeed is faster than residual pitch oscillation mach

AIRSPEED
Warning: Speed is slower than inflight minimum speed
Low airspeed, high AOA, CG approaching aft limit, elevons near limits of pitch control authority

CG LIMIT no show in SFID
Caution: CG is out of CG envelope and in the caution zone

MACH LIMIT no show on SFID
caution: airspeed is up to .02 mach faster than mach limit
Airspeed is approaching residual pitch oscillation mach

MODE DISC no show on SFID
Caution: uncommanded disconnect of a specific autopilot mode. Rescinds in 3 seconds.

RALT EMR no show on SFID
Caution: penetration master mode selected and a radar altimeter is on

2 RDR ALT no show on SFID
Caution: both radar altimeters have failed.
Airspeed up to 7 KIAS low when entering ground effect on landing

FPM gets info from
Navs

RCR
26 dry
13 wet
4 icy

Go/ no is lowest of what
Rotation speed and refusal speed

Add half the gust increment to what speed
V rotate and obstacle climb out speed and approach speed

What is the crosswind speed restriction
30 knots

What are the display radar priority items
VSD is first priority

Difference between green, white, and white box, yellow dashed, orange
Green means available, white means selected, white box means it is armed, yellow dashes engaged, orange boxed means coupled

When is please standby on MDU
MUX bus data transfer from FMCP through DPU is interrupted

Each DPU controls how many MDUs
2

Liftoff speed is how many knots from rotation
10 kts

Approach speed
215 plus 3 for each 10000 pounds above 215000. For crosswinds greater than 25 approach speed is 140 plus 3 knots for each knot above 25.

Descent options
Max range: .76, 180 kcas
Pen: .70
Operational: .77, 325kcas
Pen: .80
Tactical: .77, 325kcas, sb 45
Emer: .8, sb max

When do i need to get a TRT waiver
If the corrected MCT critical field length exceeds 80 percent available runway. 9920 szl

Flight plan

How do you activate the flight plan/get the blue line
Enter a runway in performace data or usr the direct to on the DEP

What type of point can you use the direct to function for
Destination only

When using the direct to function how far out will the initial turn point be
1 minute

When does an automatic OFP load occur
Upon initial power up

When loading a mission what does complete mean
The selected mission has been transferred to the DDU buffer
- has not loaded to the processors yet
- must check the system mission AVIN display to verify processor load

Destination numbers
1-800/D

Replan destination numbers
801-1000/D

End turn destination (rollout points) numbers
1001-1800/D

Replan end turn destination numbers
1801-2000/D

Replan action point numbers
2001-2200

Mission action point numbers
2201-2999

Offset aim point numbers
3000-3999/O

NAVAID point numbers
4001-5999/N

Guided weapon DMPI numbers
6000-6999

Target numbers
7000 through 7999/B,G,M,R

Mission action point (map centers)
8000-8191

How many action points can be associated with a destination
4

What DEP format is used to associate Action points to destinations
DEST REV/ED format pg 3

What DEP format will show LAT/LONG
Action REV/ED

Where can you edit action point coordinates
ACTION REV/ED

How many associated action points will show on a normal display
Two behind current point and two ahead (5 total)

What data can you change in FPLN EDIT
Altitude, airspeed, wind

How many points are displayed at a time on the FPLN REV format
3

What symbol is used to indicate multiple lines on an action point description on the DEP
*

What does an asterisk mean
Means there is more than one action required at that destination. IP and ACAL

How many control times and control fuels can be entered at one time
Time: one. Fuel: one. Can be to different locations

What colors on the display indicate early, late, on time
Green=within window
White=early
Yellow=late

How many destinations points can be displayed on the HSD/TSD/CTSD
HSD:16
TSD:12
CTSD:16

How many offset aim points (OAPs) can be displayed on the HSD/TSD/CTSD
HSD:20
TSD:4
CTSD:4

How long does a MSN load take
5-7 min

How do you verify an OFP before loading a MSN
a. AVIN LVL 3
i. BIT
ii. CDE
iii. OFP = VALID 13

What directories are used for P 6.04 and P.1.2
A. P 6.04 = directory 1-7
B. P 6.1.2 = directory 8-12

How often does a mx write occur
Periodically
A. Sends to TARGA when volatile memory reaches 75% and at the end of a MSN during the power off sequence

What are the 4 reasons the CIDS is a better IFR tool
1. 22 replan destinations whereas TSD can only use 9 new points
2. "Turn to sharp" advisory
3. Ability to change the scale while re-planning
4 ability to leave the page and return without losing progress

What does the FLPN CREATE function allow you to do
It allows you to create or initiate a re-plan before takeoff on the ground

DPs default to the _____ function
1. To
2. Other points are known as Previous, From, To, and subsequent

Timing
ETA= time then time to next point if no control time is entered
If control time is entered, the time will countdown to the control time
Fuel does the same thing

What does the b2 use for destination turn points
Overfly

What will happen if wrong OFP or corrupted in a processor
Will auto reload as long as master power on was used, and OFP files are available- machine knows where to look

Action point identifiers cycle through what action point identifiers
D- destination
O- offset aim point
B- bomb damage assessment target
G- gravity target
M- missile target
R- relocatable target
N- navigation aid

Where can you go direct to
Just a destination. Not an offset

What does msn complete mean?
Loaded msn in own DDUS

Maintence write occurs
Continuous in flt for error messages
3/4 full dumps to TARGA
First minute of shutdown

OFP loads are available where
Avin lvl one for system msn display
Avin lvl 3 for specific processor

How do you force load a mission/OFP
CDE Avin lvl 3 then power cycle/
Avin lvl 3

RPLAN
CIDS 22 vrs TSD 9
CIDS gives better JA
range scale better
Position center

Difference between HSD, TSD, CIDS
HSD: 16 destination points (20 OAPs)
TSD: 12 destination points (4 OAPs)
CIDS: 16 destination points (4 OAPs)

How do you update the winds
FPLAN EDIT

How do you do an ACAL
DEST REV/EDIT

How do you update airspeed, alt winds
FLAPN EDIT

Non converging replan vs converging replan
For non converging the replan ends at a landing base or in space.
For converging replan, enter the D number for the desired convergence point

Buffer has how many points
16 points

Air refueling


RV Delta
Tanker orbits at rvcp

RV Golf
Enroute, a common track based on time

At IP what is preformed
Fly IP inbound 450 KTAS. taker starts roll at 20 nm

What are tankers airspeed
Kc135-260
Kc10-275

What is the difference between tacan information
Tacans are 63 difference. Receiver is always lower number. Kc135 gives DME while kc10 gives DME and bearing

What is the center contact position
KC135 center is 32 degrees 14 feet
Kc10 center position is 30 degrees, 13 feet

What do you tell the tanker when you establish com
Establish com 15 min prior. Checklist 30 min prior. Call sign, time L or E, FL, squawk, alt setting

What does the tanker give you upon exiting ar
ATC clearence, block altitude

What does the breakaway call sound like
Call sign, breakaway x3

If you cannot see the tanker what do you descend to
1000 feet below

With a single receiver how far can you approach radar/no radar
1nm without radar. Can continue to .5 nm with operating radar

If multiple tankers you can climb at what distance? What is the vis requirement
If one receiver you need one mile vis. 2nm vis if in formation

Lead must delay climb until
Until visual with #2

If lost wingman you require what vertical seperation
500 feet seperation minimum.

What are the overrun procedures
Receiver slow to less than 230 kts, tanker accelerate to 300 kts

What are the breakaway procedures
Disconnect, idle (not rapidly), sb, down to 500 feet. If not visual 1000 feet.

Need sb if greater than 500 fpm descent.

Speed schedule
.8 outside of 1nm.
30 knots of closure
20 knotsof closure until .5 mile. If IMC
10 knots after .5nm.

What methods are available for finding the tanker for rendezvous
Radar, tacan, iff, ins, visual, radios

3 mist common rendezvous
Alpha anchor point directed by radar control station
Delta, tanker orbits at AAR point parallel/time to CP/ tanker arrives well before we do.
Golf- join up on a common track based in time. RVIP join up at a particular time

When do we run the AR checklist
30 min prior.

What is the first step in the AR checklist
Rendezvous equipment/data: tacan, freq

When establish comms
15 min prior

What is MARSA and how do you establish it
Military assumes responsibility for separation of aircraft. Cannot be assigned by ATC must be requested and accepted by both tanker and receiver. Ensure comms with tanker have been established prior ti accepting

What primary piece of equipment does the tanker use for rendezvous
TCAS

When using the AA tacan what channel do we set
The lower of the two. 63 channels less

What does the kc10 provide that the kc135 doesn't
Bearing

What thar the primary publications for AR
ATP 56B. Dash 1. Chapter 8

What information do you provide the tanker on initial contact 15 minutes prior
Call sign, timing, alt, altimeter, squawk

How many emcon types are there and what are they
4.
1=on
2=on/with variations
3=as required/monitor radios
4=off, monitor radios

What are the vis requirements
Single receiver- 1nm no radar. 1/2 nm vis with operating radar.

Mult tankers- 1nm

Mult receivers- 2nm. if vis is less than 2nm wingman go to 3nm trail.

What are the overrun speeds
Tanker-300
Receiver-no slower than 230

What defines the precontact stable astern position
50 feet behind and slightly below on centerline

At what speed should you approach from the precontact
1 fps closure rate

Breakaway procedure visual signals
Callsign breakaway x3
Squeeze trigger first detent, boom clear, throttles slowly idle, 500 feet,

Beacon on. Director lights glash

Who has the authority if the director light fail
Receiver pilot determines wether to continue or not

When is the override option allowed
Emergency only

Who is the lead in a formation
The tanker is the formation lead

If we initiate a descent in a breakaway greater than 5 degrees nl, what else must we do
Extend speed brakes to avoid underrun

What must the receiver do if they lose sigt of the tanker
Descend to 1000 feet below the tanker

What us tobogganing
300-500 fpm descent to allow for a power advantage (aid in power limited refueling)

Kc135 limits
10 degrees left/10 degrees right
40 degrees down. 25 degrees up.
Extension 10-18 feet
Center 14 feet/32 degrees
Speed 260

Kc10 limits
17 left/17right
40 down/20 up
10-21 boom extension (other jets 6)
Center: 13 feet/30 degrees
Speed 275h

Siphoning procedures
Stop XFER notify receiver receiver determines. Concern is aft equipment bay.

What if you have a failure to latch
Recycle AR system

Planned fuel erased from fmms memory by
Closing switch
Fuel to manual
Initiate disconnect


Tactics-SAMs

SA-2
SA-2 Guideline.
Range 29.7nm
Alt 98400
Radar TA: spoon rest TTR: FAN SONG
Rear area defense

SA-3
SA-3 Goa
Rng: 15nm
Alt: 66,000
Radar: LOW BLOW
Area defense rail launcher

SA-4
Ganef
Rng: 27nm
Alt: 82000
Radar: PAT HAND
Point defense. Mobile

SA-5
Gammon
Rng: 162nm
Alt: 100+
Radar: SQUARE PAIR
High speed high altitude HVAA threat

SA-6
Gainful
Rng: 14nm
Alt: 49200
Radar: STRAIGHT FLUSH
Tracked vehicle, 3 missile launcher

SA-7
Grail
Range: 2.3nm
Alt: 16,400
Radar: IR
MANPAD. Tail only

SA-8
Gecko
Range: 8.1nm
Alt: 82,000
Radar: LAND ROLL
6 wheel vehicle ????

SA-9
Gaskin
Range: 2.3nm
Alt: 98,000
Radar: FLAT BOX A acquisition radar
Clear weather, BRDM 2 armored vehicle, 4 missile canister

SA-10
Grumble
Range: 81nm
Alt: 88600
Radar: FLAP LID/ TOMBSTONE
cruise missile defense

SA-11
Gadfly
Range: 19nm
Alt: 98000
Radar: TA: SNOW DRIFT TTR:Firedome/ TUBE ARM
Tracked vehicle, 4 missile launcher

SA-12A
Giant
Range: 40nm
Alt: 82000
Radar: GRILL PAN
High performance anti-ARM

SA-12B
Gladiator
Range: 108nm
Altitude: 98400
Radar: GRILL PAN
Standoff jamming aircraft threat

SA-13
Gopher
Range: 2.7nm
Alt: 82,000
Radar: SNAP SHOT
Tracked vehicle, SA-9 follow on

SA-14
Gremlin
Range: 2.7nm
Alt: 50,000
Radar: IR
MANPAD. All aspect

SA-15
Gauntlet
Range: 33nm
Radar: SCRUM HALF
Mobile, SA-8 follow on

SA-16
Gimlet
Range: 2.7
Alt: 33000
Radar: IR
MANPAD. Improved SA-14

SA-17
Grizzly
Range: 24nm
Alt: 98000
Radar: CHAIRBACK
Mobile, SA-11 follow on

SA-18
Grouse
Range: 2.7nm
Alt: 33,000
Radar: IR
MANPAD. SA-16 follow on

SA-19
Grison
Range: 11nm
Altitude: 33000
Radar: HOT SHOT
Mobile. Mounted on 2S6

SA-20
Gargoyle
Range: 5nm
Alt:88500
Radar: TOMBSTONE

Sa-21
Range: 1nm
Alt: 98500
Radar: 64N6

SA-22
Range: 1nm
Alt: 50000
Radar: SNAP SHOT

SA-24
Grinch
Range 1nm
Alt:32000
Radar: IR
MANPAD

SA-26
Range:3.5nm
Alt: 65000
Radar: LOW BLOW
Area defense rail launcher


Tactics-weapons

Mk82
TNT or tritonal explosive. Can be dropped as unguided or GPS tail kit smart.
500# GP bomb

Mk 83
1000# GP bomb not used

Mk 84
2000# GP bomb

BLU-109/B
BLU refers to the body. Are the same size as the Mk but replacing due to enhanced explosives.
2000# warhead for GBU-31/v3

BLU-111B/B
500# GP bomb replacing Mk82

BLU-113
5000# warhead for GBU-28 B/B

BLU 117B/B
2000# GP bomb replacing Mk-84

BLU-122/B
5000# warhead for the GBU-28 C/B

DMS

Missile guidance threat emitter
Color: Red
Size: large
Audio: yes
Flash: yes

White box will overlay the emitter for 10 sec

Track threat emitter
Color: red
Size: large
Audio: yes
Flash: no

White box will overlay the emitter for 10 sec

Track inhibit strobe/ audio threat emitter
Color: red
Size: large
Audio: no
Flash: no

Search non EOB/ previously active non EOB threat emitter
Color: yellow
Size: lg/small
Audio:no
Flash:no

Active search EOB
Color: green
Size: large
Audio: no
Flash: no

Previously active search EOB threat emitter
Color:white
Size:small
Audio: no
Flash:no

DMP 2 can configure for what
DMP 1 or TELS processor

On the CTSD links link 16 displays what as red
SAMs and surface to air missiles are always red

Possibilities of ambiguities
(Bearing, mode, ID) bearing ambiguity will display a white underscore in addition to RWR. A threat in RWR with no underscore is ambiguous in range only.

What is the RWR ring
Radar warning receiver that tells you the bearing of a threat but is ambiguous for range

What is used for known threat locations
EOB (electric order of battle)

How do you determine the difference between threat track and missile launch
Both have a red line to your aircraft which means you are in the high power threshold of the threat sys.
Both have a white box displayed around the threat for 10 seconds
Audible cues
Missile launch will flash on the TSD and CTSD. Target tracking will not.

What 2 files can the crew change in board the aircraft.
EOB and EID. An EID error would prevent the DMS from detecting or displaying the EID to the crew

What are the 2 DMS formats we use on the DEP
DMS PWR format. PWR-DMS
DMS control format (INDEX page down-DMS control)

Where can you tell that the DMP2 is powering the TELS
DEP PWR format (will have DMP2: ON TELS)
DMS Control format line 8 (DMP2=TELS)
AVIN level 4 ant (will show D1PA *blank* PP TELS)

What backs up the Z63/ TELS Processor
DMP2

If you lose the PP (preprocessor) will the TELS work
No. However, as long as you have at least one working DMP your EOB data will still show.

What happens if no wirkibg DMPs, all DMS is INOP
X aircraft symbol on TSD will be replaced with mini B2

What happens when band 4 emitters go past the 3/9 line
It will show on the TSD as a previously active threat (little letters)

What do the sizes if the threat/radar symbols mean
BIG LETTERS= ACTIVE ie BB
small letters= not active ie bb

What ICS Control panel knobs must be ON in order to hear audible threat warning cues
THREAT TRACK= ILS/TT
MISSILE LAUNCH= EMTR

How many EOB segments are loaded at a time
5 (current segment, two behind, and two ahead)

Declutter settings for TSD
U- removes all unknown threats
F- removes all friendly threats
S- removes all SAM threats
IM- removes all threats not in track or launch
EW- removes all early warning radar threats
RTN- restores normal button labels with declutter options selected
BRG- removes all emitters with ambiguous bearing
DM- reduces NAV points to 8 and removes the 3 side options on left

When you lose the TELS, PP, and DMP2 what shows on the TSD
Stale data until the system is purged then only EOB data remains from DMP1

What are the AVIN display levels
1- top kist of all possible avin
2- DMS specifics: DMP1, DMP2, Z63, PAS
3- can reboot or BIT system, do a CDE, or load an OFP also shows status
4- antenna display for the DMS system

Of the following statements on DMS interfacing which is true
DMS needs NSS data for TELS processing

What DMS component takes over the TELS function should the ZSR band 4 receiver fail
No backup exists

What DMS component takes over the TELS function should the ZSR 63 preprocessor fail
No back up exists

The TELS processor provides
Emitter location
Emitter detection
Emitter identification

In which of the following components does the defense management operational flight program (DMOFP) reside
Defense management processor

Which one of the following DMS files contains the emitter location
EOB

Which processor takes over for the TELS function should the ZSR63 TELS processor fail
DMP2

Which one of the following statements is true when the TELS fails and DMP2 is not available
New active emitters for bands 1-4 will not be displayed

TELS classifies emitters by threat type and priority and sends the data to the
DMP

Which one of the following files contains the DMS emitter locations
Electronic order of battle file

Which one of the following statements applies when the audio message threat track is heard
Monitor the TSD for threat radars operating in the track mode seen with an audio box displayed for seconds

On which display or format can you apply power to the TELS ptocessor
DEP DMS power control format

On which display or format do you initiate DMS classified data erase
DMP 1 or DMP 2 level 3 AVIN display

What can cause An unrecoverable TELS failure
Failure of the TELS processor and DMP2
Failure of the TELS preprocessor

What DMS support is still available when both DMPs fail
None

The PAS power application is controlled by
AVIP or DEP

During normal CMS operations, the contrail caution message is removed from the STAT display
When contrails have not been detected after a specific time

The PAS system caution message on the STAT display is shown when PEN is selected and the laser is off
True

The CMS interfaces with the
PAS, DEP, MDU, and AVIP

Operation of the PAS is inhibited with
Weight on wheels

When the laser is activated and both FMCPs fail if the pilot alert system circuit breaker is not pulled after landing the aircraft should
Stop straight ahead on the runway

The PAS laser is selected on the
Navigation data display P5

The PAS processor is controlled by the
AVIP

Power is automatically applied to the PAS processor
Based on a specific barometric altitude

You receive the contrail caution message only if
The laser is on and is detecting a contrail

2 DMP caution
Both defense management processors have failed. Defense management system data not on TSD

DMP OTEMP caution
One DMP is off and the remaining processor has an overheat condition

TELS FAIL caution
Loss of TELS

TELS OTEMP caution
TELS processor has an overheat condition and backup is not available. A TELS component has an overheat condition.

1 DMP advisory
One defense management processor failed

TELS DEGRD advisory
A receiver has failed.
A preamplifier has failed.
An RF cable has failed.
A TELS antenna has failed.
TELS has stopped processing.

TELS lvl 4 color delineation
Green-on
Blue-off
Yellow-failed
White-integrating
Orange-overtemp

When is a sam detecting
If you violate a fuzz or spike

Where do you do a CDE
Level 3 AVIN display

DMP fails what symbols do you get
Everything stops ni threat data display

Each EID region can contain how many emitter types
200

How many EOB segments are in memory and passed to the TELS
5 EOB segments

5 EOB segments can hold how many emitters
750

Non EOB is what color
Yellow

Unguided weapons

RLA weapon carriage and numbers
B61-7: 16
B61-11: 8
B83-1: 16
MK-84: 16
GBU-28: 8
GBU-31v1: 16
GBU-31v3: 16
AGM 158/A: 16

forces acting on bomb
Inertia, lift, gravity, drag
Aerodynamic: drag, lift
Physical: inertia, weight

Bombing error system altitude does what
HA is too low: late release long bomb.
HA is too high: early release short bomb

Mission dependent files
Files affecting the MMS including target data target sequence zonal winds and weapon inventory/edit files

What are the conventional bomb weapons effects
Blast, fragmentation, cratering, armor penetration, incendiary, kinetic

Mission independent files include
Weapons ballistics, gross weight, center of gravity, classified constants, weapons characteristics files

Pw are the WIUs cooled
Ambient air and conditioned air from the CCS.

What are the WIUs
WIUs are the interface btw the jet and the weapons "brains of the release system"

What is the GCP
Ground control panel

How do you extinguish the GCP yellow light on the WPN bay sys page
Place the GCP to FLIGHT
PSLU on entry door hatch must be closed
- confirms the safe lock is driven to flight mode
- if not in flight mode and you takeoff, doors can potentially creep open and you will not have control of the doors.

What are the two types of SIM modes for the weapons
1. FULL: weapon bay doors will not open and weapons will simulate
2. Partial: doors will open and weapons will simulate.

How do you select SIM modes
MDU WPN display R5

What hydraulic systems operate the weapon bay doors
Left bay: 1 primary 3 alternate 4 backup
Right bay: 4 primary, 3 alternate, 1 backup

Symbols for bomb run: x, box x, -, triangle
Triangle- target, x-alt cal, box x- ip, — is bomb release point.

In order to power ip the WIUs what must be on
SMPs

How much of a GP bomb is explosive weight
50%

Where can you find ballistics info
TGT file page 3

How many targets can be in each branch
20
You can only see targets on current branch

How do you edit target coordinates
Action/Rev Edit

How long does it take the RLA to rotate per station
5 seconds
35 seconds for full rotation 1-8

What are RLA inhibits
-Inhibits release if not within 1.5 degrees of commanded position: MMS degrade
-manual rotation inhibited within 45 sec of automatic release

When are tail fuses normally used
Penetrating/delayed action

What is the difference between dependent and independent mission files
Independent files cannot be changed by the crew in flight- classified constants
Dependent files can be changed by the flight crew in flight: weapon inventory, target sequence, target data, zonal winds

In order to release in manual what must you have set
Doors must be opened manually
Released consent switches enabled
Bomb release option in man
Man release at 0
Doors will auto close

How do you get DIR versus REQ track
REQ track requires box nav at the pre ip, crossing the IP, jet goes i to bomb mode and REQ track.

DIR track would occur if you were not in boxed nav at pre IP and you later went i to bomb mode. Will also go DIR track 30 TTG

When does aircraft TTG start
When passing the IP. Weapons strike display changes as the IP is sequenced. Shows: target number, TTG to release, location of next release, selected bomb mode.

If NAV steering is boxed then passing IP what is commanded
Required track

Passing IP aircraft drops into bomb steering what track is commanded?
Required or direct track is commanded

30 seconds TTG what track is commanded.
30 seconds TTG direct track is always commanded

How are weapons cooled?
Cabin conditioning system

The GPP houses what 2 switches
Cabin conditioning cooling switch, cabin & cabin and weapon flow switch

Ground control panel positions and functions
Flight- no power is provided to the GCP
DSBL- GCP is disabled
GND- GCP receives power provides landing gear PSLU senses aircraft is on the ground. must be in ground to rotate on ground. Must be in flight to takeoff

What are you looking for when closing the hatch
The GCP light is out. Safe lock actuator is driven to flight.

How do you engage in partial and full sim and what do each do
Weapons page, R4, sim P/F.
Partial sim: actuates the doors. RLA never rotates
Full sim: fully simulates everything and does not actuate the doors. RLA never rotates

How do you know msn has been cut for SIM mode
Check the racks. Check the weapon inventory. It should say Sim:Y or Sim:N

What gives command to TRUs, ejector relay
WIUs

WIUs get their commands from
SMPs

Bombs will not work if TOF is than safe separation
Less than.
TOF must be greater

Top part of FZU 139
Low drag

Bottom is high drag.

Where would you fuze a weapon for delayed action
Tail

What does a fragment pattern look like from nose versus a tail
Tail frags downward. Nose more spread out pattern

On the ground where do i go if i want to look at the target files
Weapons format, target file number. Type s and select target to get target sequence file

If doing a target file and in branch zero on the ground what should you see
Shouldn't see anything because you are on the ground

Why dont you make edits of branch
Because they dont save

To drop bombs manually what fo you need to do?
All actions except door opening and initiation of the release signal can be done by the SMP. Either manual release button may be used for weapon release. You do not need to close doors. Time of zero man release

Where can msn dependent files be modified
Target sequence files. Inventory, sequence files

How long for rotation between stations
5 seconds

How long for rotation between station 1-8
35 seconds

What are the procedures to skip a weapon drop
1. Position unlock enable to off/safe
2. Select manual bomb mode
3. Close bomb doors
4 Skip - skip displays overly not abort
5 overfly- must be selected to abort bomb run and return to NAV steering

If when doing a bomb run 1500 feet laterally away will a bomb still be dropped
Yes. Limit is full scale deflection. Beyond 3000 feet inhibits release.

How man MK-82s can fit on a rack
20

How many MK-84s can fit on an RLA
8

Do both consent switches need to be uo for an unguided drop
No

How many targets for each branch
29

Where do you change the targets coordinate values
Action rev edit. You can see target coordinates in target file. It will act as the first 2700 series

What do nose fuses increase
Nose fuses increase sidewall frag pattern

What is the min weapons release interval for unguided weapons
65 ms dual bay
130 ms single bay

Bomb trail
L. Is the horizontal distance from the bomb impact point to the aircraft position at the time of impact, measured in feet

Bomb range
BR. Is the horizontal distance traveled by the bomb from release to impact measured in feet

Time of fall
TOF. Is the elapsed time from weapon release to ground impact, or air detonation, measured in seconds

Time to impact
TTI. Is the time remaining to bomb impact or air detonation measured in seconds

Time to go or actual time to go
TG TTG. Is the time from aircrafts present position to the release point. Measured in seconds.

Height above target
HAT. Is the aircrafts height or absolute altitude above the target at the time of release measured in feet

Height of aircraft
HA. System altitude is the altitude of the aircraft at release, measured in feet above mean sea level. This altitude is displayed on the top right of the HSD, TSD, and CTSD. System altitude can be updated by preforming an ACAL.

Bomb resolve locas
BRL. Is the line if all points from which the weapon can be released to hit the target, approaching the target on an infinite number of headings
 

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Basic Guided Weapons

What are the rings on which we place bombs
Conventional: C, D rings
C: odd stations. D:even stations
Nuke: B, D rings

What are the ways to no strike a target
Press NSTK legend on MDU
DEP target file format 2

For RLA weapons stores weight and CG is updated when a msn is loaded regardless of WIU status. If carrying live or inert weapons weapon inventory must match actual prior to what?
Prior to powering WIU.

To see the PM ring you must be in what
TG and True heading (true track will be flown by SMP).

On the active target list there can be how many targets at one time
4 targets at a time

When do you have EXC
Master cursor, valid point, past SSF
Must perform entire sequence in auto or man
Must shoot 7000 arm and arm 7000 first
Must arm each individual map

What are the bomb bodies associated with the GBU-28C/B and GBU-28B/B
GBU-28B/B is BLU-113
GBU-28C/B is BLU-122

How do you change the degree of impact on a GBU-28
Change the LAR percentage. The greater the LAR penetration percentage the higher the impact angle.

How many GBU-28s can the B2 cary
8 on even D ring racks. 4 in each RLA. 5 seconds for each launch if in r and left bay. 10 seconds if in single bay. Can still cary 16 weapons.

What is the max number if auto GAT maps
3.

Manual GAT uses how many maps
1 map

Is there a limit to the amount if GAT looks
No.
Up to five maps on a MDU before radar failure.

What mode must be selected for a GAT run
The GAT legend is displayed inly if nav is in a GPS aided mode (SGI, GDR, GI). The only thing that is not acceptable is FM GPS. Must have sone sort of GPS nav source.

How many DMPIs can be associated with a target
16

What is the optimal delta look angle
An aspect angle of 45 degrees must be taken with the b2 radar. 45 degrees

How many GAT modes are there
GATS has 5 radar functioning modes. 2 antenna radiating modes.
GATS first (GAT1)
GATS designate (GATD)
GATS subsequent (GAT2)
GATS batch (GATB)
GATS terminate (GATT)

What is the difference in satellite handoff between GBU-28 and the GBU-31v3
GBU-28 targeting algorithm uses the very same 4 satellites being tracked by the B2 MAGR.
GBU31v3 is INS fed , but picks up own constellation of satellites. JDAM preforms best after acquiring 12 satellites. If no satellites are acquired uses INS data.

When do you push the manual release button
Must be in SAIR. Wait until countdown timer extinguishes.

Powered weapons color, letter, and meaning
White A - the weapon is aligning
Green A - the weapon has completed alignment and is ready to receive assignment
White L - the weapon is conducting an ephemeris load.
White D - A degraded weapon. Ie. Ionospheric data/bad receiver. May still be released depending on priority
Green G - full up weapon. No degrades. ION save has been sequenced.

What are the weapon launch priorities
Good first- select good weapons before degraded weapons
Good only- only use good weapons not degraded weapons
All equal- select good and degraded weapons based on bay and launcher position only. (white D and green G weapons) no yellow or off weapons

What is a DMPI and DPI
DMPI is a desired mean point of impact: weapons are centered around the middle of target complex.
DPI: desired point of impact. Where the weapon will hit.
B2 uses DPI DMPI interchangeably

What is precision pattern
AUTO GAT only function
2-4 DMPIs/weapons
Created only by msn planner
If you NSTRIKE the master DMPI the slave DMPIs are NSTRIKE as well.

How many guided targets can the SMP range on
4

Where does pattern recognition appear
Auto GAT

Can you strike an unachievable target. What is displayed for an unachievable target
No. A yellow 59:59 for TTG, remains until at least one DMPI achievable

Periodic vs aperiodic data
Periodic data: dynamic inside of PMT
Aperiodic data: MSN planned parameters. SMP uses aperiodic data when calculating pattern management algorithm.

What is the orange arrow
Preplanned attack axis

What is SAIR and SAIR advisories
Safe And In Range
FASTER/SLOWER- outside of speed range
ROLLOUT- exceeded roll limits for weapon release
CLIMB/DIVE- pitch attitude is exceeded
SAIR is removed from ATL.

Can you delete a DMPI
No only NSTRK

What is the difference between FCOR and back designate
FCOR (comp messes up) back designate- i mess up.
FCOR means to correlate the designated pixel coordinates in the subsequent map with the same coordinate pixel location in the first map. Causes the confidence level to revert to previous values. Acceptable match is 30 or greater.
Back designate: causes radar to redesignate the selected pixel on the first look map by performing reverse batch or map match from the crew selected position on GAT 2 to a new radar selected position on GAT 1 image.

CEP map matching window refers to
Xxxx/Cyyy/Mzzzz
DMPI ID, CEP in feet, Map matching confidence level. M000 if no map matching

DMPI id colors
Green: CEP is less than or equal to 20
White: CEP is greater than 20 but less than or equal to 60
Yellow: CEP is greater than 60

When do you use NSelect
When you are in PM for another target, your ATL will show differently than the target you are heading towards. Utilize N select to override PM and reorder ATL.

PM computations are only processes for what
The target on the top of the ATL

What happens if you expand on a subsequent target while in PM for an earlier target
Subsequent target displays:
CORR PMT ZOOM blank
Release line PMT circle blank
PM present and white TGT number is redo

What is a non fatal fault and how do you clear it. Fatal faults are what
Non fatal fault are declared for critical failures occurring before launch countdown initiation. Cleared by reapplying power
Fatal faults are declared for critical failures occurring after launch countdown initiation.

AFMSS series numbers
7000 series targets
6000 series DMPIs
8000 series map centers.

TG selected snd Expand does what
Displays target data blocks
DMPI achievable status
PMT the range threshold remains

Flying info

If you cannot get a green G on your weapons page do what
Ion save is not integrated. Use dest rev/ed format 2 to create a ion save point or use the radar to shoot a man gat.

What if you are in pm early for a tgt
You need to resequence it. Do so by tgt file select tgt and use next highest sequence number

Define ion freeze
Position for selecting standard ionospheric correction

Define ion save
Selected position for ionospheric correction factor data is transferred to MMS

Define SSF
Satellite geometry is locked for GAT. Begins GAT sequence, B2 selects and processes satellite freeze info at SSF. Same 4 satellites are tracked during common reference frame to eliminate bias errors.

How do you make a destination an ion or sat freeze
From dest rev/ed format 2 L1.

How do you create an alt cal
From dest rev/ed format 2 L4

How do you create a navigation point from which to fly to
Use 2000 series to create point in action rev/ed. Go 2001 act rev/ed then change to a N point and accept.

If i cant see my tgt what do i need to do
Need to associate it to a destination in dest rev/ed format 3.

When creating a tgt how do i do this and what does M stand for
To create a tht must out 2700 series number in act rev/ed then change it to a M- guided wpn. Accept it and associate it with a destination to see it.

What is the maximum speed to intercept the glideslope
180 kcas

Fly closed patterns at
minimum of approach speed plus 20.

East patterns are flown at what altitude
1900

West patterns are flown at what altitude
2400

Need approval for full stop landings above what
285,000

standards

What does saddled mean
Closing in from 3 miles on preceding aircraft.

After calling saddled what does FL do
Accelerate to 280 until .77 mach

After takeoff as wing what are your callouts
"Visual" when ALL preceding aircraft are in sight. "Tied" when in radar contact with preceding aircraft

Lead will report passing every _____ with current and planned rollout heading until wingmen report visual/tied
5000 feet

Maintain a minimum of what separation between aircraft taxiing
500

Formation takeoff minimum interval
One minute minimum waived to 30 seconds.

Lead change
Fl announces ld change, wingman acknowledges and moves line abreast min 1000 feet spacing. Ld directs change, wingman acknowledges then changes altitudes. New 2 moves to radar trail.

Fl calls Magellan means what
Perform a NAV reset. Com, l-16, terminal, NAV reset L2.

When do you need to call Magellan
When using L16 and aircraft are no longer visible on the link due to degraded positional quality.

At what altitude should you rejoin doing a mid mission rejoin
Join 1000 feet above highest aircraft

What are the tanker visibility requirements
Single B2 single tanker-0.5
Single B2 multiple tankers- 1nm
Multiple B2 single tanker-2nm
Multiple B2 multiple tankers-2nm

What is the post AR position
2000 feet below refueling base altitude left of tanker 60 degrees , 2-3 nm.

When as 2 do you go to A/R formation position and what is that position
Go to formation position (4 o'clock, 1nm) when Ip inbound and within 30 degrees of AR track heading.

When as 2 do you go maneuver to stack and final AR position
Passing rendezvous point with all tankers and b2s in sight.

Night AR when do you turn anti-collision lights off
Within 500 feet slant range

When lead says go AR tactical. This means what
Pf goes AR prime comm 2. PNF goes ATC /inter flight. HF is 6.761

Climbs as lead
250 until saddled then 280 until m.77

Descent at lead
250 kcas idle power with no speedbrakes. If greater then 250 use 500 fpm descent until capturing 250. If less than 250 use Mach hold with idle power until reaching 250 kcas.

Descent and climb as wing
Climb at 250 until visual and or tied on radar then accelerate to 280 MCT. Continue into position until reporting saddled.

What are the overrun procedures
Receiver reduces airspeed to NO LESS than 230 maintain track and altitude. Tamker increases airspeed to 300 kcas.

When do you conduct an Warm start
When the engine run time is less than 60 minutes

When are you stripped
When more then 1nm out of position

What is joker fuel
ERCC + 5000

What things do I need for sign out
Me: targa (AMT), MTP, DVR, Flybook, pelican case-310
Jet: SSD, blue,orange, red drive targa Mx-310

Who conducts takeoff briefing
PF

Are you going to abort for any flt control caution even if it rescends?
Yes

How often do you do a top 5 AVIN check
Once per hour

What are your climb call outs as PF
1000 to go. Captured level at XXX.

What do you say after completing flt plan edits
Flt plan edit complete through Dxx, XXX, Winds Xxx/xx

PNF will terminate overrun when tanker is in sight passing
4 o'clock or 8 o'clock with forward line of sight

Before the approach what must airspeed be set
Groundspeed

When do you call rotate
Approach speed minus 10

What would you call a go around for
Drift greater than 2. Touchdown speed lower than 15 below approach mode. Point outside of the planned landing zone: 750-2500

Plan descision point is: at least _____________ feet prior to planned brake application
2000

For a normal landing what does the PNF do
Announces ground speed and runway remaining. Set brake application speed on VSD (ERCC/HOT PIT)

Can you land late for hot pit
No

Cold pit and quick turn sorties what stays on the jet
Mx targa

What is your response when completing fence check
Fence check complete pilot/MC

If a 3 map gat who takes weapon page
Pilot flying

What does the PF announce upon seeing TG timer
Xx:xx to release. 60 sec (no response req). 20 sec (checklist complete)

No external (outside) com inside of what time
60 sec

PF priorities
Fly the aircraft.
Ensure in corridor.
Minimize CDI deflection.
Ensure LO is met.
Stay on blue line.
Maintain airspeed window.
Timing.

Execute ACALs prior to updates.
PF will use MDU 3 for ACALs and set AUTO, but not latched. PNF will analyze and reply accept or reject.

PNF will announce platform at least how many seconds prior to executing map for aiming. After say what
30 sec. Mapping. Cleared to maneuver

Roll interrupt NLT how many seconds prior to release- guided. Unguided how many seconds
20 sec. Ensure autopilot is coupled

Nuke safe escape maneuver PNF duties
Set heading bug
Hack a clock at release
Countdown to detonation and shock arrival 5 sec prior

When use mad dog freq ch 9
While on ground and in terminal area prep for landing.

If no contact established after 30 sec attempt on other radio. Return to previous freq and stby


Standard level off speed? Call out deviation if greater than
420 true. 20.

When does number 2 turn on pitot heat
When lead begins to run up engines

When turn off base escape master mode
.6 Mach or prior to 10,000 MSL

What will you use to maintain formation spacing
Radar and A/A TACAN

During climbs and descents offset what direction from lead
Right for 2, left for 3 to avoid flying through wake turbulence

Initiate descent how far in advance
4 times alt +50.

Blind procedure call alt every
1000 feet wingmen should repeat.

Remain in what position from behind lead?
.05-1.5nm. 30 degrees aft of 3/9 line

During BD check wingmen use approx what percent speedbrakes
10-15

Formation 1,2,3 Assignments for initial coordination brief
1: training requirements
2: weather NOTAMS, flying and range schedule
3. Intel. Scenario briefing

After calling visual OR tied wing can do what
Accelerate to 280

If preceding aircraft cannot be acquired in mode transition to
BCN, RWS

What is bingo fuel
Planned fuel for each ARIP, assuming missed AR, and from the farthest point along the route. Plan bingo to RTB directly and land with normal recovery fuel (or required fuel reserves).

IMC AR procedures
Flight lead of tanker can call. 2 goes 3nm trail off lead. 3/4 maintain normal trail position off 2

IMC AR when call we'll clear and what is end ar position
Well clear when established post AR altitude 2nm and 30 degrees off 3/9 line.

Recovery who gets what
2 sweep atis report back up. Lead passes brevities and gets parking spots and ERT.

Range standards what is standard formation deconfliction
500 foot stack and 4 minute time separation.

On takeoff when do you call airborne on AUX
AFTER raising the gear handle.

Climbs of less than 5000 feet are performed how
With Mach hold

How do you setup bullseye
Bull2 is set as bullseye. Set: north up, MAG, POS, centered on BULL2, ALL, select B2C.

ACS standards
JMPS moving map (no auto-center), outlook displayed. Bull to own ship on bottom right of JMPS screen.

Ops check is in what format? Give me an example.
Call sign, fuel, system status
Death 12, 146, GREEN.

Lead request what state means what
What are the number and type of weapons remaining.
Death 11, aux what state
Death 11 is 2version 1s, 3version 3s, 2 GB-28s.
Death 12 is same, 1 JASSM

When what luck is requested means what
Wingmen reply with the status of assigned targets. AS FRAGGED if all tgts are completed.

The PF will announce what for altitude calls
1000 to go. Captured (when seeing green in alt bar). Announce level at FL XXX.

25-2

What is TA/TB
TA/TB provides aircraft safe separation before bomb arming and firing by preventing the false radar alt signals from causing early detonation

How do you change TA/TB range?
From tgt file there is a MAX TA/TB [109] and a MIN TA/TB [010]

What does changing the min and max TA/TB do for you
Establishes an acceptable range that precludes use of TA/TB setting on wpn preflight panel.

What if both TA/TB are in range?
TB is automatically selected by SMP

Transition

Visual pattern
Close pullup at approach plus 20(maintain whole maneuver), 30 degrees, roll wings level to check for traffic, select approach abeam td zone, 45 degrees off rwy turn, app+10 during final turn, roll out 400-500 feet and 1.5-2nm

3 eng SEO approach
Must be below 245,000lbs and have 1000-2 vis or circling mins. Configure 2-3nm prior to FAF, if greater than 245,000 (no app mode) fan boards in 10 degree increments,

Non P approach
Slow to 200 on base,configure 4nm prior to FAF, do not couple to AS hold or altitude hold inside FAF so arm MDA, use 4 degrees nose low.

To allow APU refueling what must respective tanks be
Main tank: below 18000#, inboard below 19,400#, outboard below 14,300#.

To avoid fuel venting overboard ensure outboard tanks are below what
14,300#.

Gk

Weapons bay doors speed limit
0-65 is 529
65-90 is 397

Fuel in surge tank procedures
If 200 lbs or more is in surge tanks note quantity and make two more observations at 15 min intervals. After 30 pull fuel scavenge pump circuit breaker.

Faster cue for FMU 139 is for what
If below 30000 need to be above 250 kcas. MK84 still drops.

Base escape master mode speed limitation
180 kcas

Do not operate SILS with what
System in DR mode

Do not couple the autopilot when
A four channel flight control computer restart. Any fcs actuator

OG approval is required for full stop landings at gross weights exceeding what
285,000

Airspeed limit
529

When heavier than what weight approach and landing master mode should not be used and use what degree of speedbrakes
Greater than 280,000 and 30 degrees.

When can you not use approach and landing master mode
When greater than 280,000lbs and SEO greater than 245,000lbs.

Kc10 limits
Left 17, right 17, up 20, down 40, forward 6, aft 21.

Kc135 limits
Left 10, right 10, up 25, down 40, forward 10, aft 18.

Tanker airspeeds
Kc10: 275, kc135: 260 (or .75 Mach.)

RV DELTA
Point parallel tanker orbits at CP. Receiver calls passing IP increases to 450true.

Air refueling who sets the lower tacan
Receiver sets lower tacan channel.

RV ALPHA
Anchor rendezvous. Positive control by radar controller.

When does AC load shedding occur
When 3 generators fail or when 2 generators fail and the load on a 3rd is greater than 110%.

When does DC load shedding occur
If three TRUs fail and the load on the remaining TRU is excessive, manual DC load shedding could be necessary.

What is the speedbrake bias in each configuration
Approach and landing master mode:45
Air refueling/RC open: 10 degrees
Base escape master: 30 degrees up, 0 degrees down
Takeoff: rudders aid 30 degrees up 0 degrees down.
PEN: 0 degrees
Normal: gr up-5 degrees, gr down 15 degrees, >34000-2 degrees

Crosswind approach add how much to approach speed
Add 3 knots for each knot of crosswind above 25 knots

Radar ground ops? How far must I be to turn radar on.
1. RADAR RAD caution: radar is transmitting on the ground. Select MDU radar menue. Select CANC to put radar in non transmit mode.
2. Ensure taxi light is on
3. 200 feet personnel. 25 feet for ground refueling. 365 feet for electro explosives

How many targets can you have per branch
20

3-3

Min release interval for GBU-38? And why is there a higher number?
109 msec. For single bay releases MRI is double single bsy releases: 218. The BWS is 156 msec- to avoid overtaking SMPs during LCD.

What is the difference in fuses
FMU-139 allows only one delay setting to be used.
FMU-152 does allow for in flight delay settings as well as safe separation.
FMU-143 only allows 30, 60, 120 for E-28, GBU31-3: emergency use only

When does the GAT maneuver begin
At SSF.

Aircrew should reach a minimum of what before initiating any checklist
200 knots, 200 feet agl

Radar Patterns are flown at what
230 knots and 30 degrees of bank

Be below what speed before intercepting the glideslope
180 knots

On any non precision approach what can you not have coupled
Airspeed hold or altitude hold inside the faf

Approach pilot flying callouts
1000 feet, 500 feet, 100 above, DH

If greater than what weight eng out can you not use approach mode
245,000 lbs. Less than 245,000 you may use approach master mode.

If the runtime is greater than what, what can usually be accomplished
Greater than 60, Cold start. Less than 60 warm start.

How do you calculate TOF
Altitude in seconds plus 13.

What is the max recommended delay for FMU-152
25ms is max recommended delay due to reliability.

WBD opening and closing takes how long and to what degree are the doors opened?
8 seconds open AND closing. Doors open 65 degrees RLA and 90 degrees SBRA.

Weapons load on RLA
GBU-31v1,3; AGM-158; GBU-28. B61-7; B61-11, B-83. Mk-84, BLU109.
Shown as JD4, JD9, JSM, E28, B7, B11, B83, M84,

Decreasing the impact angle and percent LAR of a DMPI does what?
Moves that impact point earlier in the release sequence.

Weapons on a SBRA
GBU38, GBU-57
Shown as JD2, MOP

What is the DDU33
A proximity sensor that allows for air burst.

What is the GBU-31 designed for
Penetration against reinforced buildings, bunkers, and tunnels

Most releases are computed using what LAR
50 percent

Open weapon bay doors how early for release if a min interval release
15 seconds prior to release open doors.

FMU 139 high drag equal to or greater than low drag does what
Inhibits the fuse.

Hit criteria
Wpn pass made at 5000 feet or below hit criteria is less than or equal to 150 feet or desired wpn effects whichever is less. Wpn pass made above 5000 feet hit criteria is less than or equal to 250 feet or desired wpn effects whichever is less.

Unguided CDI deflection in BMB mode, if one degree what is the difference between my aircraft and weapon release point
1 degree is 304 feet. Full scale deflection is 3040 feet and the MMS will withhold the weapon since greater than 3000 feet.

Advanced Guided

Each JASSM accepts up to how many target data sets
Up to eight target data sets. 8 DMPIs per target.

We can carry a total of how many JASSMs
16. 8 per RLA.

B2 IZ-LAR
All B2 missions. Defined by lat/long to define the center and a radius to define the size.
Altitude: 3000 feet (+/- 1500)
HDG: +/-10
Airspeed: +/-.05M

JASSM IZ-LAR
Preplanned area given a launch within enabling the missile to fly the planned waypoints.

In range LAR
Maximum distance from a launch point to the target enabling missile to be launched and reach the target. All launches against TOO.

Time of flight TOF MINUTES
Non TOT. JASSM .77M midcourse cruise at 22,000

Thime if flight +\- 5 sec
Faster or slower as required to make TOT. Midcourse altitude 12,00.

TOO profile
Goes direct to the target at 15,000 ft.

Speed restriction for the JASSM and GBU57
<330 KCAS

When do you get the dual bay alert
When the PMT has bern entered and both sets of weapons bay doors do not open as required. This means you are in manual ops. Will extinguish once you switch to auto.

750 Ms delay is for what?
169B/B and 170 A/B

How is the programable fuse setting different for the GBU-57 MOP and the AGM-158 JASSM
AGM-158 JASSM programable fuse can be changed in flight. GBU-57, MOP cannot.

Mixed load MOP and GBU-38 SBRA which bay do you put them in?
Doesn't matter. Dont want to use dual sequence timing.

What is the weapon priority in SMRT racks
Good only, and good first which equals all equal.

What is the only thing you can GAT in SBRA
The headlink

What happens if you delete a target associated with a linked target complex in SBRA?
The entire LTC will be deleted.

How many linked targets can you do
8

Can you create a linked target in flight
No

What do the numbers on the top and bottom of SBRA mean
Top means it is continuing to load. Bottom means fully loaded weapon

What is the min release for the 38
109Ms

What are the release sequence options for the GBU-57, MOP
13-dual
14-left bay only
15-right bay only

What are the release sequences for the GBU-38
10-both
11-left bay
12-right bay

What fuze combination for the MOP allows for a 750Ms delay
FMU-169B/B and FMU-170A/B.
Fuzes operate together to allow 0-750ms delay.
Uses the GBU-57 D/B

What is different about the fuze setting format on the DEP in regards to the MOP
It will not allow you to make changes once inside the fuze setting format

What is the min release interval for the MOP
1000ms

What is the min release interval for the GBU-38
109ms/ BW standard is 156ms

What do the whiskers mean for JASSM launches
Visual depiction of the B2 zone heading restriction
If the heading is outside the heading range the whiskers will turn yellow

What is the max number of planned JASSM DMPIs per target
8

What are the whiskers on the SBRA display
Indicate that a TAL maneuver is required. Weapon is assigned to a target but requires a TAL

All key altitudes for JASSMs and their types
TOF+/- minutes (non TOT) 22,000 +/-500
TOF+/- 5 seconds (TOT) 12,000 +/-500
TOO IN RANGE 15,000
ATL altitude 6500

What is a TAM
The TAM contains the terminal aimpoint, a corresponding terminal scene wireframe and critical weaponeering information such as impact angle, range of acceptable approach azimuths, angle of attack, and fuze settings

What components does the JASSM act like
Penetrates like a BLU-109 bomb body
Blasts like a MK-83
JASSM is considered a 1000lb class warhead

Are there any restrictions for a solit bay load out of a GBU-38 and MOP
No, one bay will have the MOP the other will have SBRA with GBU-38s

What happens if you delete an individual target within a LTC (linked target complex)
The entire LTC will be deleted. Deleting an individual linked target in the LTC causes loss of the entire LTC. Cannot be retrieved by the target disk read process. Mission reload is required.

How many DMPIs can you GAT on an LTC
16. You can only GAT the headlink

What is the speed restriction when the AGM-158 JASSM is loaded on the C ring using C+PI fittings? The restriction also applies tO the GBU-57 MOP
Must be less than 330 KCAS

When does the arming sequence begin for the JASSM
60 seconds PRIOR TO IMPACT

Can you create a JASSM IN-ZONE launch in flight
Yes

Can you create a JASSM waypoint profile in Flight
No

Can AFMSS create a JASSM TOO profile
No

What is a linked target complex
The ability to combine up to 8 separate targets in order to strike up to 80 DMPIs. Only need 5 to reach 80. You can not create a LTC in flight

In the weapons strike display page on MDU the top and bottom row numbers on the SBRA and MOP racks add up to what
The total weapons remaining in that column

SBRA, with good first set what will happen to a degraded weapon if it is withheld
It will be released (targeted) since it is not considered failed it will not be included in failed weapon mode (released armed, unarmed, withhold)

SBRA, with good only set what will happen to a degraded weapon if it is withheld
It will be withheld

What is the meaning of release armed
For this target a FAILED guided store will be released armed, as an unguided weapon to prevent it from blocking other good guided stores.

What is the meaning of Released unarmed
A failed guided store will be released unarmed ballistically, as an unguided weapon to prevent it from blocking other good stores

What is the meaning of Withhold
Any FAILED guided store will be withheld from release (degraded, good first targeted) needed good guided stores are blocked from release.

The WDU-42/B is a J-1000 class warhead and has similar penetration capability to the
BLU-109

The mission planned terminal area model (TAM) must be imported into the AFMSS mission planning to take advantage of JASSM's
IR seeker for terminal updates to the target

When does final arming occur on the FMU-156/B fuze
60 seconds prior to TGT impact

SBRA in weapons display top row means
Weapons that are unpowered, malfunction, not assigned, never zero

SBRA in weapons display bottom row means
Aligned and assigned

Release sequence for MOP
13 MOP dual bay. 14 single left bay/ 12 right bay for JD-82.

What does the "No LAR" message mean
No LAR is only seen if there is no radius.

Egress

What are the priority methods for ground egress in order
1. Exit via crew engry door
2. Exit overhead hatches. Using emergency loweering device
3. Exit via ejection seat

What are the 3 modes of ejection for the ACES 2 ejection seat
Mode 1: low altitude and low speed (parachute inflates at 1.5 seconds past ejection)
Mode 2: low altitude and high speed (parachute inflates at 2.5 seconds past ejection)
Mode 3: high altitude (parachute inflates when it reaches the parameters of mode 2; delayed until a safe altitude and airspeed is reached)

What is the seat ejection order for AUTO
MC first
Then pilot follows 0.4 seconds later

In manual mode which pilot goes first
Whoever pulls first, goes first

How long can it take for the cabin yo depressurize prior to seat ejection
2.75 seconds

How many connections does the pilot have to strap into the ACES 2 ejection seat
1. Parachute risers
2. Ejection seat lap belt
3. Survival kit straps
4. Oxygen hose & communication cord

When getting in and out of the ejection seat what should you do
1. ensure the seat is in manual
2. Safe your seat (arming lever and pins)

How many pounds of force is required to pull the ejection handles
45 lbs

How many pins should be removed for your ejection seat operation
3. Double if you are removing pins for both seats
Two on the seat (ejection handle and manual chute)
One for the hatch jettison.

How many batteries are used in the recovery sequencer for the ejection seat
Two thermal batteries

When does your seat kit deploy after automatic man-seat seperation
4 seconds
- if kit does not deploy, you can manually deploy it via pulling survival kit D rings

What type of agent is used in the fire extinguisher
1211 Halon. Effective on electrical fires. Located on the forward bulkhead of the inner pressure door area

What powers the entry hatch
Utility battery DC power

What safety feature should the entry ladder have in place when extended
Safety pin (typically inserted by the crew chief)
At the right pivot point between the middle and lower-ladder sections

How long does the emergency oxygen bottle provide oxygen
10 minutes. Pull the green ring to activate

What is the purpose of the drogue chute
Seat stabilization, controlled deceleration under high airspeed, and stability during descent from high altitude

How do you blow the hatches
Pull the T handle straight out. Do not twist

How many handles need to be pulled to blow the hatches?
1. One handle blows both hatches

What are the 2 locations to manually open the crew entry door
1. Left of the inner pressure door when raised.
2. Nose gear wheel well
These 2 levers are interconnected

Which system powers the crew entry door
Hydraulic system 1.
1. As a backup there are 2 nitrogen accumulators

What is the accumulator pressure to open the crew entry doors? And how is the door controlled?
3100-4000. Electrically DC power controlled and hydraulically actuated

Which position should the arms on the entry hatch be facing when closed
Outward toward the skin of he aircraft (pointing at the wing).
The arms can be used to manually open the crew hatch after rotating the lever located above the inner pressure door area

How many seat connections must be released to egress
5+2.
1. Parachute risers X2
2. Lap belt
3. Survival kit (x2)
4. Oxygen/comm (should disconnect with tension)

Can you eject at zero airspeed and zero altitude
Yes. 0/0 seat

What does the 4 line jettison allow for
1. It allows you to steer your parachute
2. Do not attempt ti jettison when descending in the dark.

What type of radios are available in your survival kit
AN/URT-44
AN/PRC-90-2

What type of distress markers are available in your survival kit
MS-2000 distress marker strobe light

What type of pyrotechnic signals are available in your survival kit
MK-124 (day/night signal flare)

Where is the first aid kit located
To the right of the fire extinguisher above the trash can

Links 16

Link-16 has what antijam properties
Random noise, jitter, freq hopping, transmission redundancy,

Link 16 uses crypto key hopping to reduce the probability of intercept. It hops between how many discrete frequencies?
51

J.12 is what
Mission assignments

What is our network design
We we be in several NPGs at once. We are always in NPG 9. B2 is a non command and control asset. Only one NDL.

Orange octagon does what?
Put curser on symbol and expand it gives up to 4 additional pages of info.

What does a RESTRIKE message mean
Its the number of dmpis i did not strike

If i want to find a track number what do i do?
LOCATOR TN: enter the TN you want highlighted. TN is identified by white octagon that rescinds in 10 sec

Effective range for L-16 LOS transmissions is based on what 3 things
1. Altitude
2. Transmit power
3. Antenna efficiency

What happens to the lower forward antenna when the tacan is turned off
The antenna is now available for use

Wjen is full functionality of the CIDS after power is applied
5.5 minutes.

How will the CIDS depict a friendly fighter has engaged an enemy?
Dashed green lines with green octagon around the shooter

With application of DC power SFID will be available for eng start within how many seconds
50

What is the basic time time slot
Common time hack measured to the ms. All users on a precoordinated schedule having its own 1/128 sec trans slot. 1 slot =7.8 ms

What is the composition of a link
1 NDL Network design load but multiple NPG net participation groups

Link 16 operates in a L band using 51 frequencies. Sharing a band with what
TACAN, DME, IFF radio navigation systems

What are the 3 key elements required to participate in a link 16 net
1. NDL
2. Common time base
3. Current crypto key

Crypto is good how long
48 hours. Up to 48 hours of coverage

When does the crypto change
Alternates daily

MIDS terminal had how many locations
8 labeled 1-7 locations are paired even/odd

NDL for b2 mission can contain how many unique NDLs
8

Extended line if sight provides a range of
300nm extended range is 500nm (link 16 to link16 terminal

127 differ t combinations of nets. The ops task link, link 16 version if the ATO, tells what
What network we are using

Network time reference is what?
NTR designated participant is the Master clock. Master time that player are synced to.

ETR tells what
External time reference is where MIDS is independent GPS. All users use own GPS. All users are synched to the GPS.

NDL offsets are used for what
1. Time offsets
2. Crypto offset
Allows for subnets

NPG 9 is what
Command and control air control

What is the B2 role
Report position, info on threats, pass info BDA, passing J12.6 messaging.

J12.6?
Mark points, BDA results pointers attack status sensor targeting

What are the 2 separate processors
1. Link16
2. MISS
Use PNS until synched in the network then use network.

When do you need to do a Nav reset
When their is a difference between the J2.2 PPLI (estimated MIDS position) and the b2 nav solution greater than 1mile apart =L-16 nav reset yellow

You have a J.12 message addressed to attack ground target, what does the CIDS display
A yellow triangle appears around the TN objective.

Can you operate l-16 off the top antenna
Yes

Subscripts: U, P, F, B, C, M, E, T
U- unknown
P- pending
F- fighter
B- bomber
C- control unit
M- missile
E- electronic warfare
T- tanker platform type

Time quality is on a scale of
0-15. Displayed on DEP terminal format. May lose synch with network likely cause radio silent for extended period. Self recinds when greater than 2.

You must be within how many seconds of network time?
6 seconds

NDL select up to how many
8. Current one has C next to it

What is on msn page
Trk number and call sigh

Antenna format without arrow means what
TACAN is still on

Special TN shows up in what color
Magenta can have up to 16

When does the crypto roll over
Zulu roll over 0000z

How long does the crypto last on a single load
48 hours 2 days

How many pairs of crypto can be saved
4 pairs.
Make a total of 8.
0/1, 2/3, 4,5 6/8
Day of= even
Tomorrow= odd

What enables Link 16 to work correctly
All players have same time reference

What 3 things are needed for link 16 to operate
Correct crypto load, correct time source, correct NDL Network Design Load

How many NDLs can be used at a time
Only one. Jet can load up to 8

Where do you set the NDL
DEP terminal format

Where do you set the NPG
DEP network format

How many discrete frequencies are used by link 16
51

When does the SFID automatically display
1. initial power up
2. Failure if main avionics

What is ETR
External time reference
Can be set to either GPS or off

How would you display your callsign in Link16 for FURY 11
On the msn format FY11. First and last letter followed by number

How many special TNs can you have
16. They will display as a magenta lollipop

What is a 28.2 message
Free text format to communicate with other network players

What occurs when you use the locator function on the DEP for link-16
It will highlight the associated TN with a white octagon and display for 10 seconds

How is the b2 able to send its DMS data to link 16 players
Through 12.6 messages

What is a control unit
NDL 9. C2 will provide J12 to the b2 and receive post strike BDA J12.6 and mark point messages

What are the available antenna selections
TACAN OFF: upper and lower RX lower TX
TACAN ON: upper TX/RX

What is a nav reset
When the aircraft navigation and the link 16 navigation differ by more than a mile need to do a nav reset. Resets the l16 terminal oosition to the b2 preferred nav solution.

How does the MIDS L-16 terminal determine aircraft position
Terminal navigate independently of the aircraft nav sys by first using PNS the. Ising time if arrival differences from other terminals to redefine its own position

Can you wilco/cantco a message addressed to another member if your formation
No. You will only be cc'd for SA purposes
 

AN/AWW-14(V)

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Nuke

What are the 3 types of nukes and what are the carrying combinations
B61-7 8/16
B61-11 4/8
B83 8/16

Can you carry any combination of nukes
Yes

The NWIU on the RLA does what
NWIU is the master controller. Functions as the bus controller for the launcher bus and remote terminal for the stores bus. It contains the active electronics and circuit cards to monitor, control, arm, enable, and eject nuclear stores.

SMP commands through?
NWIU

What are the 5 types of detonation types and their characteristics
1. High altitude burst- above 100,000 feet
2. Air burst- below 100,000 feet fireball does not touch ground
3. Surface burst- fireball touches the surface of the earth
4. Underwater burst- under the surface
5. Underground burst- under the surface

What are 3 nuke effects?
Blast/shock (overpressure and shock wave) = 50%
Thermal radiation= 35%
Nuclear radiation= 15%

Nuke effects details
Blast/shockwave: air/surface burst causes most material damage.
Thermal radiation: fireball caused from x-rays
Electromagnetic radiation: gamma radiation x-rays direct effect, radar and radio waves

Where does the most damage in a blast come from
Blast/shock from speed of sound

Which effect is most dangerous to aircrew?
Thermal radiation can burn or melt aircraft surfaces and the EMP and TREE effects can damage onboard computers

What happens to the jet after blast
Air data system kicks off, autopilot warning, due to safe escape distance

What do blast and shockwave do?
Provide overpressure then over time rarefaction or a suction phase.

What does the thermal radiation do timewise
First minute or pulse is very intense heat produced from radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum (x-radiation). Second pulse is longer and less intense heat due to explosion.

EMP what is it?
Electromagnetic pulse. Causes interference with radio and radar waves. The most serious effect is the damage to electronic equipment not radio wave interference.

What is the measurement if RADs
Is the unit of energy absorption measures exposure to radiation. 100 ergs per gram.

What are the surface blast concerns and how do we avoid them?
The nuke cloud looks like a weather return on the radar. Therefore avoid what looks like thunderstorms to avoid the atmosphere effects and ingesting materials.

What is safe separation and how do we mitigate the dangers
Safe separation occurs during the delivery. Separation is achieved through a built in trajectory strong link switch and TA/GB timers- min fuse arming time.

What is safe escape and how do we mitigate the dangers from it
It is the minimum release altitude to avoid weapon fragmentation at impact detonation. Protect based on time, lateral distance, altitude and maneuvering. The maneuvering 1B2A-25-3 provides for a no damage delivery of the weapon.

How are the B61-11s stored?
Stored on D ring even stations only. 4 per RLA. Always 69 TA/TB

After selecting monitor status what should you see
White SAF

Weapon inventor format acts as what
Acts as s virtual bomb bay. It reflects and tells SMP what is on the jet. Must match SMPs cannot change anything in this format.

What are the 2 different types of SAF and what do they mean
White SAF, means all weapons are safe and disabled. Green SAF, indicates safe power is successfully applied to the weapons- closes circuits in the NWIU and allows PAL enabling.

When do you get the white SAF
After monitor power is applied

When do you get green SAF
After Safe button has been pressed in order to PAL enable.

What are the procedures for target withhold
Unlock and prearm switches- off guard down. Switch from auto to man. Close bomb bay doors. Designate skip overfly.

What are the 3 types of override procedures?
REL INHB- bay door position. Allows weapons release if the bay doors are not in commanded position (65 degrees +/-.5)
ECS SHTDN- insufficient cooling. Allows the MMS (WIUs) to operate in the absence of cooling air.
BAY DOOR- airspeed limit. To open the bay doors regardless of airspeed (.8M max) press the BAY DOOR override and then manually open the doors. 529KCAS-65degrees. 397KCAS-90 degrees.

What is the progressive arming sequence?
1. Apply pwr WIUs. 2. Apply monitor power (white SAF. D) 3. Apply safe pwr (Green SAF) 4. Enter PAL code (D to E) 5. Provide prearm consent 6. Provide dual unlock consent 7. Enter USG code. Apply prearm power

What are the two strong links
1 Unlock prearm and USG (unique signal generator) entry
2. Built in trajectory strong link switch and TA/TB timers

What are the 2 types of bomb steering? 30 sec TGT what does the steering go to?
Required or direct track. 30 sec steering goes to direct track.

Order of events unguided bombing
Pre-IP SMPs wake up target # appears nav steering boxed. Passing IP aircraft drops into bomb steering. Required or direct track is commanded. TTG appears. 30 sec direct track always commanded.

Retained weapons E-27
Before beginning the descent for landing verify retained weapons are safe

To jettison weapons what do you do
Disenable to get rid of PAL. Then CD

Once you have CD a weapon can you get that weapon back?
No the weapon is destroyed.

If you PAL disenable can you get the weapon back
Yes weapon is still usable, just locking it

B61-11 only inputs
FF-Freefall, and 69 TA/TB

When does SMP assign weapons to targets
1. WIU power up. 2. After the Pre IP (PIP) is sequenced. - weapon assignmnet, weapon status, tgt requirements 3. When you command prearm the SMP

Cloud layers can increase thermal radiation somewhere in between
50 to 300 percent.

Weapons display nuke weapons
B61-7= 61D/E
B61-11= 11D/E
B83= 83D/E

If no target number is available see L0 recover checklist
When passing the IP and no target is present due to SMPs faulting.

What system will indicate a noticeable disruption after a nuclear event (detonation)
Air data system. Overpressure will result in false air data system readings.

The risk of damage due to thermal radiation is greatest when flying
Between or below clouds. Cloud layers can increase thermal radiation 50-300 percent

Which components are most susceptible to the effects of EMP
Low power, high speed digital

Bomb characteristics
B61-7: has combination of free fall, retarded- ground, air burst delivery modes.
B61-11: has only a free fall ground burst delivery mode (penetrator)
B83-1: air or ground burst modes and can be delivered in a retarded mode

Can you carry mixed weapon loads
Yea

Safe escape definition
The minimum distance the aircraft must be from bomb impact point to avoid being struck by its own weapons effects

Safe separation is
The minimum time after release before the weapon arms (TA/TB)

When are targets assigned
1. PA PWR= weapon to target assignments are made to the weapon
2. WIU PWR up= the SMP compares the launcher to the inventory file
3. PIP sequence= the SMP checks weapon assignment after PIP is sequenced. Once sequenced the SMP compares the weapon assignment, weapon status, and target requirements to variety the weapon in the release position is still compatible with target requirements

Can you jettison a prearmed nuclear weapon
No. The system will not allow it. You must do a CD on bomb itself or electronically

What checklist accomplish the progressive arming sequence
Accomplishing the weapons monitor power on, permissive action link (PAL) enabling , and weapons prep for release checklists.

What is the difference a white and green safe
White safe= monitor status prior to PAL
green safe= safe power applied (enables PAL entry)

What is the difference between Rad, RBE, REM
Rad= the unit of energy absorbed. Used to measure radiation alpha beta particles and neutrons and gamma rays
RBE= the relative biological effectiveness of the dosage on a person
REM= a unit of biological dose of radiation. Number of RADs absorbed time the RBE of the given radiation

The first radiation pulse is primarily caused by what
X-ray/electromagnetic. Gamma and x-ray are immediate. Heat/radiation has a longer wavelength. Carries 90 percent if radiation

Nuclear radiation primarily consists of
Gamma rays, neurons, alpha particles, and beta particles

What is an important factor regarding the NWIU
Settings must match between the virtual bomb bay tgt inv with what is loaded on the airplane

Additionally
Rads are units of energy absorption. For PAL will see E when PAL enabled. After selecting monitor should see white safe. Need to open doors 15 sec TG for min interval dual bay release. Fail safe if anything happens you wont get a nuclear yield. Weapon inventory does not edit weapons settings only verifies data.

Difference between normal and abnormal day
Albedo: norm is 30% surface reflectivity. Abnormal is 80% reflectivity.
Also difference in temperature and humidity.

Nuke strong links
1. Intent. 2. Trajectory strong link switches
Intent: USG, only after prearming.
Trajectory: safe separation: either deceleration for retarded deliveries or spin acceleration for free fall.


Flight controls

What happens to pitch, when power/thrust is increased or decreased
Thrust increase= pitch down
Thrust decrease=pitch up
This is due to the center if lift being below the thrust line

Where are the engines mounted and how dies this affect lift
High. Power up nose goes down. Power down nose up

What is the difference between g stable and airspeed stable
G stable the aircraft will do what it takes to maintain 1g flight, it will slow it accelerate ti maintain 1g.
Airspeed stable, means the het will pitch to maintain a certain airspeed

What is PPI
PPI tends to maintain a commanded vertical flight path (at a given bank angle) under varying airspeed conditions. Attempts to provide a given pitch rate or g for the same stick travel over a wide speed and altitude range.

What control logic is used with the landing gear down
Airspeed stable. Proportional control laws

Why dont we do turn reversals
Requires large opposite input to counteract roll into the turn which creates a large mass distribution which could result in a departure from controlled flight

What causes the departure from controled flight with turn reversals
Continual side load movement. Creates a side load so far that the soeedbrakes will not be able to slow the jet down.

RPO parameters
Above .79 mach, more than 4000 lbs in either outboard tank, below 16,000 feet, heavy centerline weight/CG forward of 31

How are the flight control systems desiged
Quad redundancy

How many arts are there
8. 4 per each wing

Which standby instrument is independent
Standby ADI. It is the only instrument that does not get any of its information from the FCC.

When do you get a VMC warning
Speed is slower than VMCA. From low speed, high aoa, cg approaching aft limit, elevons near the limit for pitch control authority

What axis is the GLAS stable
GLAS is longitudinal stability

When is the GLAS active
1. Above 340 KCAS.
2. Above .65 mach and 30,000feet msl with more than 8 thousand pounds in the outboard tanks.
3. In bade escape mode.

What does ALT TRIM indication mean
ALT TRIM is selected activated. Activates the trim panel on the pilots left side used to control pitch and toll trim only. The yaw is now inactive.

What are the situations that lead to the mach warning
Airspeed is more than 0.02 mach faster than the mach limit. Airspeed is faster than the residual pitch oscillation mach.

GLAS has how many actuators
2 actuators. goes yellow never goes red

What does approach mode do to your flight controls
1. Speed brake bias goes to 45 degrees.
2. Changes target CG
Parameters to engage are below 35,000 MSL and 300 KCAS/.55M

What is the CG limit with CG greater than 29.5
13.5 AOA limit

FCCs are independent but how do they talk to each other
Through the communications control data link CCDL. On frontside, olympic voting. Backside, monitors the arts.

Speedbrake bias
ENG START: 5 degrees
Initial takeoff: 15 degrees
Gear up: 5 degrees
Above 35,000: 2 degrees
A/R: 10 degrees
App master mode: 45 degrees
Touch and go: no bias
PEN: 0 degres

How long does ABIT, SBIT last
ABIT: 30 seconds through ABIT pushbutton, SBIT through MAIN pushbutton then DEP, 20 minutes. SIDS displays BIT fail, if the bit has been interrupted or failed.

Speedbrake is located where and which has authority
Pilots 4 throttle. MC overrides pilot. ALT SPEEDBRAKE switch overrides bias. Control functions are: RETR, NORM, EXT

PEN is what percent of N1
3 percent N1. +/- 10 percent of thrust. Equivalent to 2 degrees of rudder

PITOT heat is on how many seconds before takeoff? Limited to how many min/seconds?
On 63 seconds prior to takeoff. No longer than 2 min 40 seconds or 160 sec.

What is the WCA if pitot heat is left on
PITOT HEAT

When do you get a speedbrake WCA
Pen mode speedbrake is out. On take-off speedbrake is out

How is the B2 wing loaded
B2 is low wing koading. Means the b2 gets more turbulence. Rough ride

Rudder provides what. What are its priorities
Yaw, pitch, speedbrake

AMSS gives what data


Symmetric/ asymmetrical g limit
-0.5 to 2.0
-0.5 to 1.6

Max pitch bank
Pitch 30 degrees
Bank 65 degrees

Upon entering ground effect the b2 floats this is a result of what
Pitch up

What is the primary reason for eliminating side slip
Engine stall

If a crew wants to improve its maneuverability it should position its cg where
Aft. Whereas forward promotes stability.

Base escape mode bias
All are the same prior to liftoff
At liftoff +12 speedbrake changes to 21 up and 9 down. Upon landing gear retraction GLAS is activated. Self disengages at .6m

What is the disadvantage of low wing loading
Susceptibility to turbulence.

Where does attitude information come from
AMSS

What effect on the aircraft does ground effect cause
Causes the nose to pitch up

Why do we have sideslip limits AOS
Reduced airflow to engine causes it to stall

minimum number if FCCs to fly
1

What happens when CG moves aft
Aircraft becomes less stable while maneuverability increases

What does a white x mean on AMSS
AMSS is still functioning but needs a calibration. Yellow x means it is a complete failure

What does the FCS do to AOA limit with an increase in mach
Decrease the available AOA

GLAS component failure identification
1. Master caution FCS
2. Yellow slashes indicate failed components
3. Powered by hyd 3&4 and 1 art from each side controls the glas

How many flight controls do the actuators have
2. 3 for inboard elevons

How many hydraulic systems power each actuator
2

How many FCCs ARTs and AMSSs are there
FCC 4, ART 8, AMSS 4

CTC

Can you BIT an ILS
No

KYV-5 loads what
HF crypto

What can you load on AIT fill panel
Crypto for COM1,COM2, and LINKS 16

IFF and SATCOM fill panel loads what
IFF and MILSTAR

Individual component status and initiated BIT are found on the componenet level 3 AVIN displays for all of the following except
Ils 1/2

AIT 1 and 2 operate at what range and what are the presets
Operate at 80 without pop out and 160 with pop-out. Presets are 1-40

HQ preset range
41-60. Dedicated anti-jam

HF presets
Has its own 20

AIT secure voice preset channel
69

What is the HF radio for
For long range comm. bounces around the troposphere.

How do you encrypt HF
Through KYV-5. RCU talks to ANDVT for secure HF.

How do you get EAMs
MILSTAR is how you get EAMs through satellite.

TACAN does what
Navigate

How many ILS. How do i BIT
2. Can only cycle on and off through the power format 2 page.

RF CFL advisory/ caution
Radio frequency conflict. Means the UHF/ VHF frequency is too close to the ILS. Chhane the last frequency entered.

How do you load an encryption
Through the SKL

Will HF give a conflict if it is too close
No

If you are in the weather and need to shoot an ils but you have a conflict what do you do
Change Com1/2 antenna

What does IFF stand for
Identification of friend and foe

Modes1,2,3,3a,4
Mode 1: A two digit code showing the type of aircraft and the mission
Mode2: is a NORAD code identifying the wing or base of the aircraft
Mode 3: a four digit code for ATC
Mode 3c: altitude reporting
Mode 4: for encrypted codes two options A and B

What are the 3 different ways for setting a tacan
INDEX, RNAV, REFUEL

What are the available time-slots for MILSTAR
A-J and k are available messages on the jet. A-J holds 40 characters, K holds 160. 5.4 sec is how long it takes to send 40 character message. 5.4 minutes until you get back t your time slot

What does it mean if you see a G Rec
It means you are receiving a transmission on guard. Someone is transmitting on guard but you can inly receive not transmit.

AIT has a dedicated guard channel what is important?
It is receive only

Line 8 if you receive EMER SW
Means the IFF is in emergency

KYV-5 RCU goes to what HF tactical terminal?
ANDVT

Startup utility battery
DC power only, low power, COMM 1, 76 sec initiation and last frequency remains

ACDU
No backup. Enables comms with ground and crew cheif. Also WCA Betty

Conformal antennas too and bottom whats important about them
location of antennas have a profound effect on mission capes.

Location of ILS LINKS 16 and HF
Ils is in the nose. Links 16 with the tacan bottom only HF is in the right wing

Pop out antenna range
Doubles the range. AIT 1/2 UHF and VHF only. 150 mile range

What do AVIPS provide
Bus control and support for comms

What does the AIT house
Seperate guard receivers

What are the troubleshooting techniques
Cycle power
Run a bit
Reset circuit breaker

RFSU and AIT delay
RFSU and AIT have a delay after power cycle. Do BIT them on at the sane time.

RFSU assigns an AIT to an antenna and does what
Provides a pathway to a conformal upper and lower antenna or pop out antenna

Single SAT antenna data
AITSAT- voice and data
Milstar- nuke
ACS/HPW data

GREC 1 or 2
Guard transmission received while using satcom

Havequick
Frequency hopping/anti jam. Requires: WOD, TOD when it starts hopping, NET (how fast it hops)

MILSTAR
Nuke hardened system. Workdwide dissemination of force direction message and EAM. Preformatted A-J messages and K.

HF
KYV-5 ANDVT
ANDVT is secure voice processer
First transmission synchronizes, but subsequent transmissions do not

TACAN blanking means
Similarities in TACAN and IFF leads to the blanking of one. IFF has priority during an interrogation

Ku band transponder does what
Ability to encode. 15 total. Allows radar ti soot other b2 via code. Upper and lower emitters. Norm comes online at 90 kts. Powers off once app mode selected

IFF time between mode 4 a/b. What happens if i didn't load keys
2 minute warning. DEP caution in line 8 if keys are not loaded. MDU advisory if no keys are loaded. NORM mode when 90 kts. Stby when less than 65 kts

ICS panel XFER, B/U,
Xfer gives control to other pilots ics panel. b/u isolates com 1 to left seat and com 2 to right seat and all acdu functions are lost including audio.

Mic and foot pedals
Mic- up is out. Down is in
Foot- right is out/ left is in.

Ways of squawking emer
Toggle up in ics panel. Index type 7700.

Emergency comm is on what
Uhf guard

Preset info
Change is only valid for that flight.

HF power override
Decreases fange for overheated HF.

CCT AVIN caution
RFSU or AIT communication equipment is not controllable, degraded or failed. Restart or bit as required.

ICS SW EMR caution
A communications selector is not in position ics and PEN mode is selected

Pop out ant caution
Deployable antenna not in commanded position. Pen master mode is selected and deployable antenna is out

EMERG MSG
A satcom emergency action message has been received.

IFF KEYS advisory
Iff mode 4 is enabled and current mode 4 is not loaded

SATC SIG advisory
Military strategic tactical relay satellite down link signal lost.

Utility power
Low power to comm 1. No ant/freq control. 76 sec for warmup.

Batt/apu power
Avip integrates ait 1/2. Full power rfsu powers with ant.

What bypasses ACDU
Xfer and b/u

How does ACDU work
Works eith voice and tone, has no backup ensure good with warning check.

When can you edit presets
Can edit presets into temp buffer. Good until shutdown or new mission load.

What haopens when weapon bay doors pop out.
Antenna auto stow.

How are radios assigned
RFSU assigns radios to antennas through avips

Is RFSU Nuke hardened
No only Milstar is

How do you deploy antennas
On comm format 2

Do not bit what at the sane time
AIT and RFSU you get XMIT INHIB

What happens if HF overheats
HF override

Difference btw uhf/vhf abd satcom
Uhf/vhf is line of sight. Satcom voice and beyond line of sight

SKL does it have its own power
Yes. Own battery power

Iff goes from stby to norm when.
Greater than 90 knots. Norm to standby less than 65

How many radios can popout a time time
One

RF CFL adv
Ils and comm are within 90 khz

Ku band uses what to see other aircraft
Radar

Ways to ident
Iff format, index format, ics.

CTC Avin cautions are for
AIT Or RFSU. Advisory for all other.

When do you get a GMT KEYS advisory
2358z

Iff keys advisory
Iff mode 4 is enabled and current mode 4 is not loaded

Radar

RDPs do what
Two of them continuously monitors and controls all radar operations and performs routine computations

RSPs
2 of them analyze radar signals through simple computations such as range, azimuth, and velocity angles

Receiver/exciter
2 of them translates received signals that can be filtered and amplified more conveniently

Waveguide switch assembly
Only one diverts RF energy to the required antenna left or right
Single point of failure
Duplexer

Waveguide
Hollow pressurized rectangular tube that carries radar signal RF energy to and from the antennas

AESA antennas
Teo of them direct RF energy out inti free space and receives the return RF energy

Motion Sensor Set
Provides data to the signal processor for motion compensation and stability compensation of the antenna. Allows for radar shots in a turn

Prime Power Conditioning Unit PPCU
Amplifies DC power for the AESA antennas

Phase shifters
Electronically steers shapes and directs the radar beam.

How does pulse compression effect resolution
Increasing pulse compression improves radar range resolution by making pulse width so narrow that it can detect closely spaced targets

What is azimuth resolution based off of
Beam width or doppler processing

What is the benefit of using SAR
Makes a small antenna seem big in order to increase resolution

What does pixel count do for resolution
A higher pixel count increases resolution

What is interleaving
Priorities the sequence of radar mode operation using a list of priorities.

Too priority is switching radar sides when a failure occurs to the primary radar

What functions require the master cursor
1. Air to ground modes: RB, CM, GAT
2. Wx and NDA normal modes

Master curser (CSL CLR) not required for:
1. ALTM
2. Wx and NDA Volumetric
3. RWS (requires MDU cursor assignment for exc)
4. BCN (requires MDU cursor assignment for exc)
5. AAD (requires MDU cursor assignment for exc)
6. Demo modes: SEA and GMS (requires MDU cursor assignment for exc)

What is the power on sequence for the RDPs
1. Power RDP 1 (wait for OBIT) the. Power RDP 2
2. RDP 1 will be OPER
3. RDP 2 will be STBY

NCAL means what
MX has not calibrated the radar

What does PWRO mean
Radar mode is using MAX power versus power management which only uses what it needs

What is an MPU
Monopulse update
1. Single radar shot on top of a CM to enhance resolution
2. Must be presses within 6 sec

What is PVU
Precision velocity update. Used to update velocity for the radar system and is only available in doppler

What is real beam similar to
A conventional radar

GAT is specific to
Weapons and targeting

CM is used with what
Coherent map mode is used with SAR mapping

KU beacon is for what
Under beacon and is used for radar tracking of another B2

SILS is used when
Provides approach capability based in data generated by the navigation and RADAR systems

Ground radar operations
1. RADAR RAD caution: radar is transmitting on the ground. Select MDU radar menue. Select CANC to put radar in non transmit mode.
2. Ensure taxi light is on
3. 200 feet personnel. 25 feet for ground refueling. 365 feet for electro explosives

ALTCAL procedures
AUTO or MAN
1. AUTO will update if LATCHED is selected and the aircraft overflies an ACAL point.
2 MAN will use the elevation of the next destination to compute system reference altitude.

How long must you be stable before taking a radar shot
For at least 10 seconds

How many radar frequencies
16/16 for training. 32/32 for combat/when in PEN mode

How long until radar mad goes stale
Radar map will go stale after 3 minutes

Best radar look
Squint angle of 45-60 degrees. No more than 50 feet

What is the weather or thunderstorm avoidance
20nm below FL200. 40nm above FL200

WSFE when does if show serial number or number failed.
Shows serial number during ONIT/IBIT, will show number when failed all other times.

Processors/antenna group interface on what MUX BUS
MUX BUS R.

What are the components that interface with the processor/antenna components throufh the MUX BUS
1. Radar data systems
2. Radar signal processors
3. Retriever/exciter
4. Shared PPU
5. Waveguide switches
6. Antennas

Power management override does what
Increases radar transmit power to max

GATS is created how
SAR map created by two pictures

If both radars are in operate what should happen
One should be selectively turned off

How do you switch radars
Two ways SSW (2 sec) or cycle on/off (within 2 sec)/warm start

Whst is the MDU pixel display
512 x 512

How long does an IBIT take
90 seconds

Master controller is not required for what
ALTM, WX, NDA, (RWS,AAD, BCN)

PRUN updates occur every? CRUN should be canceled for how long every____
10 seconds.
Canceled for 5-10 sec. Every 30 min.

Synthetic aperture does what?
Creates electricity generated high resolution maps CM or GAT

Blue line appears on what
RB2, NDA, wx avoidance

For operating radar what happens when you see 0 for serial number/WSFE
Means you need calibration

WSFE XMIT/RCV of AESA
Greater than or equal to 75 on one mode STATUS adv. Greater than or equal to 75 for two. White MODE STATUS + yellow mid level AD

Larger antenna provides what
Mire precise focus for higher resolution

ALCAL within what distance
3000 feet of sequence point

Squint shots what do you need to do
Stabilize 10 sec prior.

Navs

What is the basis of navigation
Dead recogning- position of where i am and how fast i am going

How is DR mode navigating
By FCS attitude and motion sensor set information augmented by Doppler velocity inputs.

What are the 3 processors
AINS, INS, FM these are considered the brains

What are the 3 platforms
AINS, INS, GPS

Inout to the processors comes from
The FMCP through the GPS, and AMSS

What is the basic principle of the INS
Changes in position are converted to acceleration

What happens when you scramble align
Commands the NSS to the highest available navigation mode without having to go to the Mode format. 90 sec To get to GA NAV RDY

What are the alignments and how axis
GA- 2 axis
RGA- 1 axis
Scramble- 90 sec fine alignment
AA Prep- mainly airborne
XFER-airborne

What type of errors Are there
Mechanical: gyro related
Environmental: shuler cycle gravitational effects, corrislius

What are the AMSS and what are they designed for
Are ring laser gyros that spin up in 56 sec. Designed for aircraft heading and altitude. AMSS feed into processors to get DR

What is MSS
Tied to the radar gets stabilization for the radar. Receives alignment from the nav sys

What does the kallmen need
Needs 2 or more sources to estimate errors. Can through radar sys update force the update

Nav processors uodate how often and what do SMPs do
Processors update 4 times per second. SMPs update continuous computed realease point. Produces weapons release point for you.

What are the ways to update your system to improve your position
1. Through the radar: CM and PVU.
2. Overfly update
3. GPS
4. Stars (astrotracker)

What are the limitations with selecting doppler radar
Do not use doppler radar over large bodies of water or after completing a full GA

When may doppler radar be used
Anytime FOM is above 5 and until the FOM decreases to below 3.

How do you update the CM map and what are its limitations
Update with offset aim points. Limits are it can be detected and jammed

What can i use to evaluate my ststem
Offset aim points

What are the limits to the astrotracker
Clouds and time (2 sec)

What are the time priorities
GPS, ATTU, self

How are overfly updates used
They can be done on the ground or airborne but the kallman filter can accept or reject it

GPS Y codes do what. What is the primary satellite tracking
Give more precise updates. Should see 5 use 4 to produce a fix

What information do you see from satellites and how is the information stored
Almanac and empherus data. Almanac is retained information based of where satellites are.
Empherus data is more precise prior to dripping the system gives more precise data updated every 4 hours. And ion saves the point: freeze point

How do you update your pressure altitude
FM will produce reference altitude updated every 15 sec. You can preform an ALTCAL.

GPS updates every 15 seconds

How is the nav system composed
EMP hardened

Describe FOM figures of merit
The lower number the better. A FOM of 1 is the best and 10 is te worst

Does the power supply unit supply power to the AINS
It supplies power to the AINS IMU. It does not supply power to the AINS processor.

What does a blinking light in the ATTU mean
Indicates that a time is preset in the unit; does not indicate that the time is accurate or reliable

Time must be within what to use the AINS
2 seconds

MAGR use and when does the GPS stop providing updates
MAGR does all computation and data storage. Stops providing updates when it is tracking less than 4 satellites

If i dont have info in the satellites when the jet is brought back up what happens
It will take longer to find the satellites due to jet movement. Could take up to 20 min

How do the FMs reference pressure altitude
FMs will figure out PNS or i can do this manually. If i do it manually it only updates the one i have selected.

How does the MMS compute release
MMS Receives ONS (onboard nav sys) alt info ti produce weapons release point then solves ballistic issue

What dies the AMSS use
The AMSS from the flight control sys uses altitude, heading, and position info

Fm is not kallman filtered


What happens if you move when the jet is in a nav ready state
If you move more than 1.5 feet per second the jet modes for you.

If not coupled how do i recouple
I must XFER alignment. If off more than 2 FOM for 2 minutes the system automatically decouples

When does the AINS or INS shut itself off
If the processor fails more than 3 times it shuts itself down.

When shutting down after a full GA alignment what happens
The system stores full heading and position

In auto both receive uodates
INS AINS

Which is the longest alignment and how long is it?
66.5 minutes for the AINS. 41.5 minutes for the INS. 25 minute difference btw the 2

When doing what alignment must you mode yourself
XFER. AA align the jet modes itself

Y code helps in what way
Anti meaconing

If you have a gravity fault what should you not do
Fly the blue line.

NSS AVIN caution
Processor or platform over-temp. Gps failed or loss of signal

2 NAVP
AINS and INS processors have failed snd their platforms are shutdown.
The basic nav solution is providing data based on AMSS and GPS. FMGPS

ADI MSCMPR
The preferred. Av solution disagrees with the AMSS 3.5 degrees or more. Determine which alt reference is erroneous

1 NAVP advisory
Either the AINS or INS processor has failed and the platform has been shutdown. The sys tried to recover the processor 3 times. Expect degradation no crew action.

What is the difference between processor and platforms
Processors brains/ platforms gyros or stabilization

What do the IMUs provide
Heading velocity and altitude changes which feed into nav processors

How does power work between platforms and processors
if you power off a platform the processor is still operating in the background. If a platform fails the processor attempts 3 times to turn it back on

How does the INS work
Uses 3 accelerometers to measure the change in acceleration as aircraft moves

Thermal conditioning and thermal stabilization
Conditioning 40 degrees
Stabilization: 100 AINS. 150 INS
Warm up is a count up. Alignment is a count down

What is the difference between AMSS and MSS
AMSS is designed ti calculate heading and altitude through the RLGs

MSS receives inputs from the NSS and is used to stabilize the radar both use RLG

3 total kallman filters
AINS, INS, and BIG KALMAN embedded in the INS

How is release point determined
Nav processors provide info to MMS to produce stable platform for SMPs and compute CCRP continuos computed release point.

What types of updates are available to the nav
Astrotracker 61 star catelog
Radar cursor buffer =position error
GPS- Y code state 3 means possible jamming
Doppler- velocity updates DONT USE ga/ h20
Overfly must accept or reject
ALTM- the fms do rpa every 15 sec

Where is almanac data stored
In MAGR. Which stores position info alignemnt and crypto keys. Without almanac data the time for GOS to recalculate position is 22 min.

Ephemeris data
More accurate than almanac data valid for 4 hours and shuts down 2 hours prior to weapon release

What does it mean to have a nuke hard system
System detects EMP and shuts down momentarily for 59 milliseconds to prevent damage

FMCP updates
Auto does both sys processors. Manual does only one. Flight oath marker is produced on VSD by NSS which uses heading and attitude data

What is the fastest alignment
SCRA 2 axis of alignment.

AA fastest uses SCRA the. Must do 8 fuces in 2.5 hours. If gps only 30 min.

Crew or mx must do a ground alignment how often.
Full GA every 5 flights

When does sys uncouple
Disagreement by 10 feet or more. FOM varies by 2 or more.

Alert scramble
Must preform a full GA
stores position and heading
Base escape mode utilizes stored position and reverts to DR during taxi and modes AA prep.

When can you update AMSS
Only on the ground

In AVIN level 3 if you have no initial position what does that mean
You were not cocked on

What is the charge on the ATTU
3, 9v batteries lasting 2 hours minimum

If you have DR what is feeding it.
AMSS provides attitude to the nav processor

To mode stellar it looks for
GPS, ATTU or DEP time

Rage

What's the difference in ranges
Class A range: range is manned. Has ground based scoring capability and RCO who controlls acft
Class B: euther manned or unmanned, had ground based scoring capability, does not have a RCO on the ground controlling acft
Class C: unmanned, no scoring or acft control from the ground.

In class A range who is responsible for all range ops and air/ground safety
RCO

Who has overall authority and can abort the release at any time
RCO

Final switch position will not be accomplished until when
Until the aircraft is in such a position that any accidental release will be contained within the range

Inert aided or CO release you must do what before release
1. Confirm accuracy of NAV and weapon delivery systems
2. Ensure accurate receipt and entry of target coordinates and confirm they are from a valid source

Can you mix delivery modes in class A range?
May mix events or delivery modes when using same target or same type delivery, and if APPROVED by RCO

Weather mins
VMC minimums are not applicable for fixed wing level deliveries above 5,000 feet AGL.

When do you call KIO
1. Safety of flight is a factor
2. Dangerous situation is developing
3. Unbriefed flight enters working area
4. Weather below minimums
5. Aircraft malfunctions
6. Loss of SA

Once KIO is called all aircraft will
Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion. Cease tactical maneuvering. Climb to briefed altitude.

When to call terminate
1. bingo fuel
2. DLOs are met or unattainable
3. Training rules or other limits met
4. Below minimum altitude
5. Below 5000 feet AGL, airspeed below mins, and less than 5nm of advisory.

How do you call terminate
Call sign terminate and bullseye reference.
Deconflict flight paths and climb as briefed.

You cannot go switches up until when
1. In restricted area
2. Cleared hot by RCO
3. CDI centered
4. Aiming complete (parameters/PRAT complete)

Winchester means what
No usable wpns left

Umpire means what
Single DMPI withhold


EPE

WBD Stuck
1. Manually close doors
2. Des skip overfly
3. Swap SMPs (man close doors)
4. CDE SMPs (man close doors)
5. Power down WIUs
6. FMCP reconfigure

Eng fire on 1 takeoff continued
Rotate THROTTLES- TRT. Climb at vrot+ 10. gear up. 200/200 ENGINE FIRE BUTTON- PUSH. FIRE EXTINGUISHER BUTTON- PUSH. Go to hidden (5102) and hold. Run after takeoff and climb check. Descent check and landing with inop engines checks. Talk to maddog. Declare emergency. Dump fuel or hold until weather is better. VMCA is 115 one eng out. 142 if 2 engines are out.

Dump fuel weights for Whiteman to be out of the caution zone
260 for wet runway.
290 for dry runway.
If 2 eng out dump to 260.

EWO Base escape takeoff
Select base escape master mode. TRT procedures (set TRT in DEP). Rolling takeoff. Climb out at rot+10. Turn at end of runway. Climb to 2100 (200' above highest obstacle) accelerate to 325kcas, once 325 reached continue climb at 325 or .77 Mach (whichever is slower). Ensure base escape master mode remains active until reaching .6M or 10,000 feet MSL.

Fuel leak
1. Eng feed. 2. Fuel leak. 3. CG balance.
Isolate the leak. Put up fuel page. Use index page for lat CG

5 different types of descents
Operational: idle clean .77 Mach until 325
Penetration: idle, clean. .7, .75, .8
Max rage: idle, clean. .76 to 180-266 based on gross weight
Tactical descent: idle, speed brakes 45 degrees. .77 Mach to 325
Emergency descent: idle, full speedbrakes, .8 Mach

PTO shear #3 on takeoff
First cue is ATS Light. PNF stops the engine immediately. Push the engine fire button twice. Do not abort with the throttle still up. Lights associated with PTIO= ATS, AD PRESS, ELEC, HYD

High temp heavy gross weight abort
Ground min control speed is 96 knots. Vmcg is the min speed during takeoff roll an eng fails and the throttles are trt, aircraft control maintained with less than 30 feet deviation. Apply brakes at distance remaining, caution, or danger speed, whichever occurs first.

What does segmented circle mean?
Segmented circle means can stop with less tan 2000 feet remaining

When is refusal speed less than rotate speed
>320k. RCR<23. Rwy<12,400

Takeoff cues and color
Green =go. Yellow=10%greater than ground run. Red=dead

Rapid D steps
Backup, ECS reset. Green apple. Descend 10,000.

Wind calculations
30 degrees off use 1/2 the total wind velocity. 60 degrees off use 3/4 total wind.

Funky chicken
One eng operating and no AC power, so PSLUs do not send signal to FCS. FCS is powered by PMG, since it is not receiving ground (wow) state FCS defaults to airborne state commanding ARTs to move fly control surface.

Unknown ejector UNK EJCTR
Launcher station # changes to yellow U. Select ULK to change state. If msg and time permit, rotate to a compatible bomb

UNCMD ULK
Uncommanded unlock: Let it ride on bomb run follow checklist if not.

Hung weapon
Rotate

Safe escape procedures
At detonation flight controls flush for TH. Wongs level for shock arrival.

2AVIP fail
No radio stays on last freq
No PSLU, no wow
No monitor of ECS, elec, eng
Need emergency gr extension
Crew compartment px erratic
Man AR
No ILS, only SILS.

UNCMD SAFE; FAIL PA BAY/UNK STATE
Bomb reporting safe status but safe not commanded. If after prearming, apply safe power for individual weapon. If E is shown perform USG. If showing D, apply SAF power and reaccomplish PAL. Can I still get desired weapons effects?

PDC 1 or 2
Door stays closed. If both fail, dual failure precludes door operation for both bays

Engine flameout
Use SIOP if no restart by 10%N2. STOP button and motor per checklist.

Engine internal fire how do I know if I have an internal fire?
Increase in TBT during shutdown.
Smoke from exhaust or inlet during shutdown. Tailpipe, ONLY if avionics are still on.

Adjacent engine shutdown
Affected eng fire button- push
Affected engine motor button- push

PDUC 1; PDUC /2, PDUC 1/2
Controller for RLA is inoperative. Loss of weapons delivery capability.

Min fuel divert
Consider fuel burn 12,000 #/hr. NOTAMS, wx, runway and winds

AMSS FAILURE
1 FAILED= white X channel failed
2 or more failed= yellow X, caution
3 failed= red X, warning
4 AMSS FAILURE= eject

Unlock enable- ULK ENB ON BAY
ULK ENB on bay: ejector relay is closed before dual unlock consent is provided.

Unlock enable- ULK ENB: FLT BAY


 
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bring_it_on

I really should change my personal text
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Thanks a bunch for this quizlet. A few hours of studying should get most folks here a solid A when they take their exams. :)
 

dan_inbox

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Surely I am an old fart --obscurantist, McCarthyst, retarded, even (gasp) uncool-- but I can't help thinking:
Who does this kind of information help?
How does circulating it contribute to our safety?
Is it really the role of a responsible citizen to circulate it further?

Not sure I really want to know the answer.
 

overscan (PaulMM)

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Surely I am an old fart --obscurantist, McCarthyst, retarded, even (gasp) uncool-- but I can't help thinking:
Who does this kind of information help?
How does circulating it contribute to our safety?
Is it really the role of a responsible citizen to circulate it further?

Not sure I really want to know the answer.
I'm not sure it's terribly useful or interesting myself, but hopefully 'Sean L Johnson' was aware the entire internet could see his Quizlet. If anyone believes there is sensitive information presented above, let me know.
 

TomcatViP

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Amazingly IMOHO, there are none. It's a wonderful document that seems to have gone through some kind of checking (remember that active jet fighter Pilot manuals are out already). So I wouldn't worry much.
@AN/AWW-14(V) : Thank you. Very interesting. To me the roll reversal ban was the most unexpected thing.
 
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